Integral representation of a rational function
up vote
-3
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favorite
I would like an integral representation for the function
$$ f(x)=frac{x(x^2-2)}{(x^2-1)^2},$$
that is I want to write it as $f(x)=int_a^b g(x,y)dy$ for some $g(x,y)$ which is not of the form $g(x,y)=f(x)g(y)$.
It must be a definite integral, with the range of integration independent of $x$.
My first guess were beta integrals, $int_0^1 y^a(1-y)^bdy$ with $a$ and $b$ functions of $x$, but I had no success with this.
real-analysis functions
add a comment |
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
I would like an integral representation for the function
$$ f(x)=frac{x(x^2-2)}{(x^2-1)^2},$$
that is I want to write it as $f(x)=int_a^b g(x,y)dy$ for some $g(x,y)$ which is not of the form $g(x,y)=f(x)g(y)$.
It must be a definite integral, with the range of integration independent of $x$.
My first guess were beta integrals, $int_0^1 y^a(1-y)^bdy$ with $a$ and $b$ functions of $x$, but I had no success with this.
real-analysis functions
add a comment |
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
up vote
-3
down vote
favorite
I would like an integral representation for the function
$$ f(x)=frac{x(x^2-2)}{(x^2-1)^2},$$
that is I want to write it as $f(x)=int_a^b g(x,y)dy$ for some $g(x,y)$ which is not of the form $g(x,y)=f(x)g(y)$.
It must be a definite integral, with the range of integration independent of $x$.
My first guess were beta integrals, $int_0^1 y^a(1-y)^bdy$ with $a$ and $b$ functions of $x$, but I had no success with this.
real-analysis functions
I would like an integral representation for the function
$$ f(x)=frac{x(x^2-2)}{(x^2-1)^2},$$
that is I want to write it as $f(x)=int_a^b g(x,y)dy$ for some $g(x,y)$ which is not of the form $g(x,y)=f(x)g(y)$.
It must be a definite integral, with the range of integration independent of $x$.
My first guess were beta integrals, $int_0^1 y^a(1-y)^bdy$ with $a$ and $b$ functions of $x$, but I had no success with this.
real-analysis functions
real-analysis functions
edited Nov 22 at 17:13
asked Nov 21 at 20:21
thedude
670412
670412
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add a comment |
2 Answers
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up vote
2
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As an indefinite integral,
$$int frac{-x^{4} +3x^{2} + 2}{(x^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dx} $$
works. As a definite integral,
$$int_{sqrt{2}}^{x} frac{-y^{4} + 3y^{2} + 2}{(y^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dy} $$
works.
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
1
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
Of course, there is the trivial relation
$$ frac{int_alpha^beta f(x)g(y)text dy}{int_alpha^beta g(y)text dy} = f(x) $$
For example,
$$ int_0^1 (k+1)y^kf(x)text dy = f(x) $$
for any $k > -1$, or
$$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{e^{-y^2/2}f(x)}{sqrt{2pi}}text dy = f(x) $$
As a potentially less trivial answer, you can perform any invertible integral transform
$$ F(y) = int_{x_1}^{x_2} K(x,y)f(x)text dx$$
Then, we can express the original function in terms of the inverse transform
$$ f(x) = int_{y_1}^{y_2} K^{-1}(y,x)F(y)text dy$$
As an example, using the inverse Laplace transform,
$$L_x^{-1}[f(x)](y) = frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y)) $$
we can write the function
$$ f(x) = L_y[F(y)](x) = int_0^infty frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y))exp(-xy)text dy $$
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
1
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
As an indefinite integral,
$$int frac{-x^{4} +3x^{2} + 2}{(x^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dx} $$
works. As a definite integral,
$$int_{sqrt{2}}^{x} frac{-y^{4} + 3y^{2} + 2}{(y^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dy} $$
works.
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
1
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
As an indefinite integral,
$$int frac{-x^{4} +3x^{2} + 2}{(x^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dx} $$
works. As a definite integral,
$$int_{sqrt{2}}^{x} frac{-y^{4} + 3y^{2} + 2}{(y^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dy} $$
works.
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
1
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
As an indefinite integral,
$$int frac{-x^{4} +3x^{2} + 2}{(x^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dx} $$
works. As a definite integral,
$$int_{sqrt{2}}^{x} frac{-y^{4} + 3y^{2} + 2}{(y^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dy} $$
works.
As an indefinite integral,
$$int frac{-x^{4} +3x^{2} + 2}{(x^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dx} $$
works. As a definite integral,
$$int_{sqrt{2}}^{x} frac{-y^{4} + 3y^{2} + 2}{(y^{2} - 1)^{3}} mathop{dy} $$
works.
edited Nov 21 at 20:34
answered Nov 21 at 20:25
Ekesh
4855
4855
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
1
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
add a comment |
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
1
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
An indefinite integral is not quite what I want, though.
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:27
1
1
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
Yeah and if you want definite just choose $x$ as the upper bound of integration and some root of $x(x^2-2)$ as a lower bound of integration, i.e. $0, pm sqrt{2}$.
– TrostAft
Nov 21 at 20:28
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
yes. @TrostAft is right. i updated my post with it for you.
– Ekesh
Nov 21 at 20:34
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
thanks, I gave you an upvote, but this is not what I want. I updated the question to make it clear that the range must not depend on $x$ (otherwise the problem is very easy, of course)
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:46
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
Of course, there is the trivial relation
$$ frac{int_alpha^beta f(x)g(y)text dy}{int_alpha^beta g(y)text dy} = f(x) $$
For example,
$$ int_0^1 (k+1)y^kf(x)text dy = f(x) $$
for any $k > -1$, or
$$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{e^{-y^2/2}f(x)}{sqrt{2pi}}text dy = f(x) $$
As a potentially less trivial answer, you can perform any invertible integral transform
$$ F(y) = int_{x_1}^{x_2} K(x,y)f(x)text dx$$
Then, we can express the original function in terms of the inverse transform
$$ f(x) = int_{y_1}^{y_2} K^{-1}(y,x)F(y)text dy$$
As an example, using the inverse Laplace transform,
$$L_x^{-1}[f(x)](y) = frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y)) $$
we can write the function
$$ f(x) = L_y[F(y)](x) = int_0^infty frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y))exp(-xy)text dy $$
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
1
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
Of course, there is the trivial relation
$$ frac{int_alpha^beta f(x)g(y)text dy}{int_alpha^beta g(y)text dy} = f(x) $$
For example,
$$ int_0^1 (k+1)y^kf(x)text dy = f(x) $$
for any $k > -1$, or
$$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{e^{-y^2/2}f(x)}{sqrt{2pi}}text dy = f(x) $$
As a potentially less trivial answer, you can perform any invertible integral transform
$$ F(y) = int_{x_1}^{x_2} K(x,y)f(x)text dx$$
Then, we can express the original function in terms of the inverse transform
$$ f(x) = int_{y_1}^{y_2} K^{-1}(y,x)F(y)text dy$$
As an example, using the inverse Laplace transform,
$$L_x^{-1}[f(x)](y) = frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y)) $$
we can write the function
$$ f(x) = L_y[F(y)](x) = int_0^infty frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y))exp(-xy)text dy $$
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
1
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Of course, there is the trivial relation
$$ frac{int_alpha^beta f(x)g(y)text dy}{int_alpha^beta g(y)text dy} = f(x) $$
For example,
$$ int_0^1 (k+1)y^kf(x)text dy = f(x) $$
for any $k > -1$, or
$$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{e^{-y^2/2}f(x)}{sqrt{2pi}}text dy = f(x) $$
As a potentially less trivial answer, you can perform any invertible integral transform
$$ F(y) = int_{x_1}^{x_2} K(x,y)f(x)text dx$$
Then, we can express the original function in terms of the inverse transform
$$ f(x) = int_{y_1}^{y_2} K^{-1}(y,x)F(y)text dy$$
As an example, using the inverse Laplace transform,
$$L_x^{-1}[f(x)](y) = frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y)) $$
we can write the function
$$ f(x) = L_y[F(y)](x) = int_0^infty frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y))exp(-xy)text dy $$
Of course, there is the trivial relation
$$ frac{int_alpha^beta f(x)g(y)text dy}{int_alpha^beta g(y)text dy} = f(x) $$
For example,
$$ int_0^1 (k+1)y^kf(x)text dy = f(x) $$
for any $k > -1$, or
$$ int_{-infty}^infty frac{e^{-y^2/2}f(x)}{sqrt{2pi}}text dy = f(x) $$
As a potentially less trivial answer, you can perform any invertible integral transform
$$ F(y) = int_{x_1}^{x_2} K(x,y)f(x)text dx$$
Then, we can express the original function in terms of the inverse transform
$$ f(x) = int_{y_1}^{y_2} K^{-1}(y,x)F(y)text dy$$
As an example, using the inverse Laplace transform,
$$L_x^{-1}[f(x)](y) = frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y)) $$
we can write the function
$$ f(x) = L_y[F(y)](x) = int_0^infty frac{1}{2}((1-2y)sinh(y)+ycosh(y))exp(-xy)text dy $$
edited Nov 21 at 21:03
answered Nov 21 at 20:46
AlexanderJ93
5,444622
5,444622
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
1
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
add a comment |
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
1
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
Not helpful at all
– thedude
Nov 21 at 20:51
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
It's unclear what you're asking for. If this solution isn't valid, there should be some statement in your question that it is not.
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 20:52
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
@thedude I've updated the answer to include a less trivial solution
– AlexanderJ93
Nov 21 at 21:03
1
1
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
Yes, that is much better, thank you
– thedude
Nov 21 at 23:46
add a comment |
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