Existence of a diffemorphism that maps one curve to another












4














Consider $1 < nin mathbb {N} $, let $gamma_1,gamma_2 : [0,1] to mathbb{R}^{n}$ be smooth paths such that
$$gamma_1 (0) = gamma_2(0) neq gamma_1(1) = gamma_2(1) $$
and $gamma_1, gamma_2$ are injetive functions.




Question: Does there exist a diffeomorphism $varphi: mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$ such that $varphi (gamma_1 ([0,1])) = gamma_2 ([0,1]).$




Does anyone know if this result is true?



This seems true but I do not know how to prove it, can anyone help me?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Is $Bbb R^{n>1}$ the set of functions from the interval ${n >1}$ into $Bbb R$ endowed with uniform convergence on each compact subinterval?
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 18:54










  • No, it is $mathbb {R}^n$ with $n>1$. I will change.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 18:55










  • Are the $gamma_i$ $C^1$? $C^infty$? Merely continuous?
    – Jason DeVito
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • It cannot be true as stated because you can take $gamma_1([0,1])$ to be a line segment while $gamma_2([0, 1])$ to be two disconnected line segments. I still think this will be false if you do not have $gamma_i$ ($i=1,2$) to be differentiable with continuity. (To see why this would have to fail if the $gamma_i$ are only continuous, take a square and each $gamma_i$ be two of its sides.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • Smooth functions, sorry
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 19:00
















4














Consider $1 < nin mathbb {N} $, let $gamma_1,gamma_2 : [0,1] to mathbb{R}^{n}$ be smooth paths such that
$$gamma_1 (0) = gamma_2(0) neq gamma_1(1) = gamma_2(1) $$
and $gamma_1, gamma_2$ are injetive functions.




Question: Does there exist a diffeomorphism $varphi: mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$ such that $varphi (gamma_1 ([0,1])) = gamma_2 ([0,1]).$




Does anyone know if this result is true?



This seems true but I do not know how to prove it, can anyone help me?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Is $Bbb R^{n>1}$ the set of functions from the interval ${n >1}$ into $Bbb R$ endowed with uniform convergence on each compact subinterval?
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 18:54










  • No, it is $mathbb {R}^n$ with $n>1$. I will change.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 18:55










  • Are the $gamma_i$ $C^1$? $C^infty$? Merely continuous?
    – Jason DeVito
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • It cannot be true as stated because you can take $gamma_1([0,1])$ to be a line segment while $gamma_2([0, 1])$ to be two disconnected line segments. I still think this will be false if you do not have $gamma_i$ ($i=1,2$) to be differentiable with continuity. (To see why this would have to fail if the $gamma_i$ are only continuous, take a square and each $gamma_i$ be two of its sides.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • Smooth functions, sorry
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 19:00














4












4








4


0





Consider $1 < nin mathbb {N} $, let $gamma_1,gamma_2 : [0,1] to mathbb{R}^{n}$ be smooth paths such that
$$gamma_1 (0) = gamma_2(0) neq gamma_1(1) = gamma_2(1) $$
and $gamma_1, gamma_2$ are injetive functions.




Question: Does there exist a diffeomorphism $varphi: mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$ such that $varphi (gamma_1 ([0,1])) = gamma_2 ([0,1]).$




Does anyone know if this result is true?



This seems true but I do not know how to prove it, can anyone help me?










share|cite|improve this question















Consider $1 < nin mathbb {N} $, let $gamma_1,gamma_2 : [0,1] to mathbb{R}^{n}$ be smooth paths such that
$$gamma_1 (0) = gamma_2(0) neq gamma_1(1) = gamma_2(1) $$
and $gamma_1, gamma_2$ are injetive functions.




Question: Does there exist a diffeomorphism $varphi: mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$ such that $varphi (gamma_1 ([0,1])) = gamma_2 ([0,1]).$




Does anyone know if this result is true?



This seems true but I do not know how to prove it, can anyone help me?







analysis differential-geometry differential-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 24 at 20:59

























asked Nov 5 at 18:51









Matheus Manzatto

1,3111523




1,3111523












  • Is $Bbb R^{n>1}$ the set of functions from the interval ${n >1}$ into $Bbb R$ endowed with uniform convergence on each compact subinterval?
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 18:54










  • No, it is $mathbb {R}^n$ with $n>1$. I will change.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 18:55










  • Are the $gamma_i$ $C^1$? $C^infty$? Merely continuous?
    – Jason DeVito
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • It cannot be true as stated because you can take $gamma_1([0,1])$ to be a line segment while $gamma_2([0, 1])$ to be two disconnected line segments. I still think this will be false if you do not have $gamma_i$ ($i=1,2$) to be differentiable with continuity. (To see why this would have to fail if the $gamma_i$ are only continuous, take a square and each $gamma_i$ be two of its sides.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • Smooth functions, sorry
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 19:00


















  • Is $Bbb R^{n>1}$ the set of functions from the interval ${n >1}$ into $Bbb R$ endowed with uniform convergence on each compact subinterval?
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 18:54










  • No, it is $mathbb {R}^n$ with $n>1$. I will change.
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 18:55










  • Are the $gamma_i$ $C^1$? $C^infty$? Merely continuous?
    – Jason DeVito
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • It cannot be true as stated because you can take $gamma_1([0,1])$ to be a line segment while $gamma_2([0, 1])$ to be two disconnected line segments. I still think this will be false if you do not have $gamma_i$ ($i=1,2$) to be differentiable with continuity. (To see why this would have to fail if the $gamma_i$ are only continuous, take a square and each $gamma_i$ be two of its sides.)
    – Will M.
    Nov 5 at 19:00










  • Smooth functions, sorry
    – Matheus Manzatto
    Nov 5 at 19:00
















Is $Bbb R^{n>1}$ the set of functions from the interval ${n >1}$ into $Bbb R$ endowed with uniform convergence on each compact subinterval?
– Will M.
Nov 5 at 18:54




Is $Bbb R^{n>1}$ the set of functions from the interval ${n >1}$ into $Bbb R$ endowed with uniform convergence on each compact subinterval?
– Will M.
Nov 5 at 18:54












No, it is $mathbb {R}^n$ with $n>1$. I will change.
– Matheus Manzatto
Nov 5 at 18:55




No, it is $mathbb {R}^n$ with $n>1$. I will change.
– Matheus Manzatto
Nov 5 at 18:55












Are the $gamma_i$ $C^1$? $C^infty$? Merely continuous?
– Jason DeVito
Nov 5 at 19:00




Are the $gamma_i$ $C^1$? $C^infty$? Merely continuous?
– Jason DeVito
Nov 5 at 19:00












It cannot be true as stated because you can take $gamma_1([0,1])$ to be a line segment while $gamma_2([0, 1])$ to be two disconnected line segments. I still think this will be false if you do not have $gamma_i$ ($i=1,2$) to be differentiable with continuity. (To see why this would have to fail if the $gamma_i$ are only continuous, take a square and each $gamma_i$ be two of its sides.)
– Will M.
Nov 5 at 19:00




It cannot be true as stated because you can take $gamma_1([0,1])$ to be a line segment while $gamma_2([0, 1])$ to be two disconnected line segments. I still think this will be false if you do not have $gamma_i$ ($i=1,2$) to be differentiable with continuity. (To see why this would have to fail if the $gamma_i$ are only continuous, take a square and each $gamma_i$ be two of its sides.)
– Will M.
Nov 5 at 19:00












Smooth functions, sorry
– Matheus Manzatto
Nov 5 at 19:00




Smooth functions, sorry
– Matheus Manzatto
Nov 5 at 19:00










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















4














Counterexample in $mathbb R^2$: Define $$gamma_1 (t)=begin{cases} (e^{1/(2t-1)},0)&tin [0,1/2)\0& t=1/2\(0,e^{1/(1-2t)})&tin (1/2,1]end{cases}$$



This is a $C^infty$ injective mapping that that traces out the line segment $[(1/e,0),(0,0)]$ followed by the segment $[(0,0),(0,1/e)].$



Note that $gamma_1$ makes a right angle turn at $(0,0).$ There is no diffeomorphism that can turn $gamma_1$ into the usual straight line segment $gamma_2$ from $(1/e,0)$ to $(0,1/e).$






share|cite|improve this answer























    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    });
    });
    }, "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2986150%2fexistence-of-a-diffemorphism-that-maps-one-curve-to-another%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    4














    Counterexample in $mathbb R^2$: Define $$gamma_1 (t)=begin{cases} (e^{1/(2t-1)},0)&tin [0,1/2)\0& t=1/2\(0,e^{1/(1-2t)})&tin (1/2,1]end{cases}$$



    This is a $C^infty$ injective mapping that that traces out the line segment $[(1/e,0),(0,0)]$ followed by the segment $[(0,0),(0,1/e)].$



    Note that $gamma_1$ makes a right angle turn at $(0,0).$ There is no diffeomorphism that can turn $gamma_1$ into the usual straight line segment $gamma_2$ from $(1/e,0)$ to $(0,1/e).$






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      4














      Counterexample in $mathbb R^2$: Define $$gamma_1 (t)=begin{cases} (e^{1/(2t-1)},0)&tin [0,1/2)\0& t=1/2\(0,e^{1/(1-2t)})&tin (1/2,1]end{cases}$$



      This is a $C^infty$ injective mapping that that traces out the line segment $[(1/e,0),(0,0)]$ followed by the segment $[(0,0),(0,1/e)].$



      Note that $gamma_1$ makes a right angle turn at $(0,0).$ There is no diffeomorphism that can turn $gamma_1$ into the usual straight line segment $gamma_2$ from $(1/e,0)$ to $(0,1/e).$






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        4












        4








        4






        Counterexample in $mathbb R^2$: Define $$gamma_1 (t)=begin{cases} (e^{1/(2t-1)},0)&tin [0,1/2)\0& t=1/2\(0,e^{1/(1-2t)})&tin (1/2,1]end{cases}$$



        This is a $C^infty$ injective mapping that that traces out the line segment $[(1/e,0),(0,0)]$ followed by the segment $[(0,0),(0,1/e)].$



        Note that $gamma_1$ makes a right angle turn at $(0,0).$ There is no diffeomorphism that can turn $gamma_1$ into the usual straight line segment $gamma_2$ from $(1/e,0)$ to $(0,1/e).$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Counterexample in $mathbb R^2$: Define $$gamma_1 (t)=begin{cases} (e^{1/(2t-1)},0)&tin [0,1/2)\0& t=1/2\(0,e^{1/(1-2t)})&tin (1/2,1]end{cases}$$



        This is a $C^infty$ injective mapping that that traces out the line segment $[(1/e,0),(0,0)]$ followed by the segment $[(0,0),(0,1/e)].$



        Note that $gamma_1$ makes a right angle turn at $(0,0).$ There is no diffeomorphism that can turn $gamma_1$ into the usual straight line segment $gamma_2$ from $(1/e,0)$ to $(0,1/e).$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 24 at 17:32

























        answered Nov 5 at 20:48









        zhw.

        71.4k43075




        71.4k43075






























            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





            Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


            Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2986150%2fexistence-of-a-diffemorphism-that-maps-one-curve-to-another%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            How do I know what Microsoft account the skydrive app is syncing to?

            When does type information flow backwards in C++?

            Grease: Live!