Let f be a real-valued function of two variables (x,y) that is defined on the square
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Let $f$ be a real-valued function of two variables $(x,y)$ that is defined on the square $Q={(x,y)| 0 leq x leq 1, 0 leq y leq 1}$ and is a measurable function of x for each fixed value of y. Suppose for each fixed value of x, $lim_{y to 0} f(x,y) = f(x)$ and that for all y, we have $|f(x,y)| leq g(x)$, where g is integrable over [0,1]. Show that
$lim_{y to 0} $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ = $$int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$$ $
Also show that if the function f(x,y) is continuous in y for each x, then
$h(y)= $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ $ is a continuous function of y
measure-theory
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Let $f$ be a real-valued function of two variables $(x,y)$ that is defined on the square $Q={(x,y)| 0 leq x leq 1, 0 leq y leq 1}$ and is a measurable function of x for each fixed value of y. Suppose for each fixed value of x, $lim_{y to 0} f(x,y) = f(x)$ and that for all y, we have $|f(x,y)| leq g(x)$, where g is integrable over [0,1]. Show that
$lim_{y to 0} $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ = $$int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$$ $
Also show that if the function f(x,y) is continuous in y for each x, then
$h(y)= $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ $ is a continuous function of y
measure-theory
If you can show that $h$ is continuous (not hard), then you have that $h$ is integrable, and then DCT is an easy thing to use.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 16 at 0:29
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Let $f$ be a real-valued function of two variables $(x,y)$ that is defined on the square $Q={(x,y)| 0 leq x leq 1, 0 leq y leq 1}$ and is a measurable function of x for each fixed value of y. Suppose for each fixed value of x, $lim_{y to 0} f(x,y) = f(x)$ and that for all y, we have $|f(x,y)| leq g(x)$, where g is integrable over [0,1]. Show that
$lim_{y to 0} $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ = $$int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$$ $
Also show that if the function f(x,y) is continuous in y for each x, then
$h(y)= $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ $ is a continuous function of y
measure-theory
Let $f$ be a real-valued function of two variables $(x,y)$ that is defined on the square $Q={(x,y)| 0 leq x leq 1, 0 leq y leq 1}$ and is a measurable function of x for each fixed value of y. Suppose for each fixed value of x, $lim_{y to 0} f(x,y) = f(x)$ and that for all y, we have $|f(x,y)| leq g(x)$, where g is integrable over [0,1]. Show that
$lim_{y to 0} $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ = $$int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$$ $
Also show that if the function f(x,y) is continuous in y for each x, then
$h(y)= $$int_{0}^{1} f(x,y) dx$$ $ is a continuous function of y
measure-theory
measure-theory
asked Nov 15 at 23:48
Sarah2018
191
191
If you can show that $h$ is continuous (not hard), then you have that $h$ is integrable, and then DCT is an easy thing to use.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 16 at 0:29
add a comment |
If you can show that $h$ is continuous (not hard), then you have that $h$ is integrable, and then DCT is an easy thing to use.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 16 at 0:29
If you can show that $h$ is continuous (not hard), then you have that $h$ is integrable, and then DCT is an easy thing to use.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 16 at 0:29
If you can show that $h$ is continuous (not hard), then you have that $h$ is integrable, and then DCT is an easy thing to use.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 16 at 0:29
add a comment |
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Do you know Dominated Convergence Theorem? Both parts of your question are immediate applications of this theorem.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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Do you know Dominated Convergence Theorem? Both parts of your question are immediate applications of this theorem.
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Do you know Dominated Convergence Theorem? Both parts of your question are immediate applications of this theorem.
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Do you know Dominated Convergence Theorem? Both parts of your question are immediate applications of this theorem.
Do you know Dominated Convergence Theorem? Both parts of your question are immediate applications of this theorem.
answered Nov 16 at 0:26
Kavi Rama Murthy
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42k31751
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If you can show that $h$ is continuous (not hard), then you have that $h$ is integrable, and then DCT is an easy thing to use.
– Sean Roberson
Nov 16 at 0:29