Cauchy Sequence in subset of a metric space
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True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
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True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
New contributor
True or False:
If E is a subset of a metric space X, then any sequence of points of E that is a Cauchy sequence in X is a Cauchy sequence in E.
I'm having difficulty understanding this language. What does it mean for a sequence to be Cauchy "in" X?
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
real-analysis sequences-and-series metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
New contributor
New contributor
edited 16 hours ago
Henno Brandsma
100k344107
100k344107
New contributor
asked 17 hours ago
51n84d
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253
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
Since $X$ is a metric space there is a distance $d:Xtimes Xto [0,+infty)$. Then ${x_n}_nsubset X$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ (or with respect to this distance $d$) if $$forallepsilon>0,; exists N;:; forall n,m>N, d(x_n,x_m)<epsilon.$$
If $Esubset X$ and ${x_n}_nsubset E$ then we may say that if ${x_n}_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $X$ then it also a Cauchy sequence in $E$. $E$ and $X$ share the same distance if nothing else has been specified.
edited 17 hours ago
answered 17 hours ago
Robert Z
89.1k1056128
89.1k1056128
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
add a comment |
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
Does E being a subset of X imply that E and X share the same distance function?
– 51n84d
17 hours ago
1
1
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
Yes, $E$ and $X$ share the same distance.
– Robert Z
17 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
51n84d.Given a metric d on X, and $E subset X$, $d_E(x,y) : =d(x,y)$, $x,y in E subset X$.
– Peter Szilas
16 hours ago
1
1
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
To the proposer: Strictly speaking, a metric space is a pair $(X,d)$ where $d:Xtimes Xto Bbb R$ is a metric on a set $X$. When speaking of a Cauchy or convergent sequence in some $Esubset X$, it is usually assumed, without saying so, that we mean in the metric space $(E,d|_{Etimes E})$ where $d|_{Etimes E}$ is $d$ restricted to the domain $Etimes E$.
– DanielWainfleet
15 hours ago
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
The definition of Cauchy sequence is$$forall epsilon>0 exists Nin mathbb Ntext{ such that } d(a_n,a_m)<epsilon forall n,m>N$$
Now, the existence of this N is dependent on the metric space(similar to the fact that limit points of a set may or may not be in a particular metric space).
Coming back to the question, yes, the given statement is true.
$because$We know that the sequence is in E, therefore, all of the terms of the sequence is in E. Hence, all the terms after the stage N are also in E and therefore the property satisfies.
Hope it helps:)
edited 16 hours ago
Henno Brandsma
100k344107
100k344107
answered 17 hours ago
Crazy for maths
3305
3305
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
The same sequence may be Cauchy in one metric space but not Cauchy in another. For example, let $M =mathbb{Q}$ with the normal distance function, $d(x, y) = |x-y|$, and let $N = mathbb{Q}$ with $d(x, y) = 1$ if $x not = y$ and $d(x, x) = 0$ (this is called the discrete metric).
Now notice that $M$ and $N$ have the same set, but they are different metric spaces since a metric space is the set together with the distance function.
Now consider $x_n = dfrac 1n$. In $M$, this sequence is convergent and therefore Cauchy (the terms bunch up near $0$ and thus get closer and closer to each other).
Now since the sequence never repeats terms, in $N$, every member of the sequence is at distance $1$ from every other member, so the terms do not get closer and closer.
Thus $x_n$ is Cauchy in $M$ but not Cauchy in $N$.
Now your exercise is one of those "so easy that's it's hard". There isn't really anything to do to solve it, but you do have to understand exactly what is going on to write a correct answer.
answered 16 hours ago
Ovi
11.9k938107
11.9k938107
add a comment |
add a comment |
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