Proving convexity of $h(y) = inf_{Ax=y}{f(x)}$ for convex $f(x)$ over $mathbb{R}^n$, and...












0












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Got into this question in an optimization course:



Let $f:mathbb{R}^nrightarrowmathbb{R}$ be convex, and let $Ainmathbb{R}^{mtimes{n}}$. Consider:



$$h(y) = inf_{Ax=y}{{f(x)}}$$



Prove that $h$ is convex.



Any help? It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum.
I believe the direction should be something like: Assume $x_0inmathbb{R}^n$ is the $x$ for which $h(y_0)=f(x_0)$. Thus,



$$h(y_0)=f(x_0)leq{f(x_0+z)}$$



for any $z$ that holds $Az=0$.



From here i don't know how to continue...










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  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure why you did not appreciate my answer, but your statement "It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum" is not true and my answer showed that.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 24 '18 at 19:55
















0












$begingroup$


Got into this question in an optimization course:



Let $f:mathbb{R}^nrightarrowmathbb{R}$ be convex, and let $Ainmathbb{R}^{mtimes{n}}$. Consider:



$$h(y) = inf_{Ax=y}{{f(x)}}$$



Prove that $h$ is convex.



Any help? It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum.
I believe the direction should be something like: Assume $x_0inmathbb{R}^n$ is the $x$ for which $h(y_0)=f(x_0)$. Thus,



$$h(y_0)=f(x_0)leq{f(x_0+z)}$$



for any $z$ that holds $Az=0$.



From here i don't know how to continue...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure why you did not appreciate my answer, but your statement "It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum" is not true and my answer showed that.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 24 '18 at 19:55














0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


Got into this question in an optimization course:



Let $f:mathbb{R}^nrightarrowmathbb{R}$ be convex, and let $Ainmathbb{R}^{mtimes{n}}$. Consider:



$$h(y) = inf_{Ax=y}{{f(x)}}$$



Prove that $h$ is convex.



Any help? It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum.
I believe the direction should be something like: Assume $x_0inmathbb{R}^n$ is the $x$ for which $h(y_0)=f(x_0)$. Thus,



$$h(y_0)=f(x_0)leq{f(x_0+z)}$$



for any $z$ that holds $Az=0$.



From here i don't know how to continue...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Got into this question in an optimization course:



Let $f:mathbb{R}^nrightarrowmathbb{R}$ be convex, and let $Ainmathbb{R}^{mtimes{n}}$. Consider:



$$h(y) = inf_{Ax=y}{{f(x)}}$$



Prove that $h$ is convex.



Any help? It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum.
I believe the direction should be something like: Assume $x_0inmathbb{R}^n$ is the $x$ for which $h(y_0)=f(x_0)$. Thus,



$$h(y_0)=f(x_0)leq{f(x_0+z)}$$



for any $z$ that holds $Az=0$.



From here i don't know how to continue...







convex-analysis convex-optimization






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edited Dec 20 '18 at 16:15







Rondo

















asked Dec 20 '18 at 15:43









RondoRondo

32




32












  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure why you did not appreciate my answer, but your statement "It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum" is not true and my answer showed that.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 24 '18 at 19:55


















  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure why you did not appreciate my answer, but your statement "It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum" is not true and my answer showed that.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 24 '18 at 19:55
















$begingroup$
I am not sure why you did not appreciate my answer, but your statement "It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum" is not true and my answer showed that.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 24 '18 at 19:55




$begingroup$
I am not sure why you did not appreciate my answer, but your statement "It's not the traditional preservation of convexity under infimum" is not true and my answer showed that.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 24 '18 at 19:55










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Let $epsilon>0$ be arbitrary and assume that
$$
u = alpha v + (1-alpha)w,quad alphain(0,1), ;u,v,winmathbb{R}^m.
$$
Assume $A^{-1}(v)={x|Ax = v}$ is not empty. By the assumption, we can find $x$ such that $Ax = v$ and
$$
h(v) leq f(x)leq h(v)+epsilon.
$$
Also assume that $A^{-1}(w)$ is not empty and find $x'$ such that
$$
h(w)leq f(x')leq h(w)+epsilon.
$$
Now, note that $alpha x+(1-alpha)x' in A^{-1}(u)$. Therefore, it holds that
$$
h(u) leq f(alpha x+(1-alpha)x') leq alpha f(x) +(1-alpha)f(x')leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) +epsilon.
$$
Since $epsilon>0$ was arbitrary, we get
$$h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) ,
$$
as desired.



If $A^{-1}(v)$ is empty, according to the definition, we have
$$
h(v) = inf_{xin A^{-1}(v)} f(x) = inf varnothing = infty.
$$
Hence if one of the sets $A^{-1}(v)$ or $A^{-1}(w)$ is empty, then
$$
h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w)=infty
$$
is obvious. (But it is desirable to assume that $A :mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^m$ is surjective.)






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Consider $g(x,y) = f(x) + delta( (x,y) | Ax=y)$, where $delta$ is the support function that takes the value 0 if $Ax=y$, and $infty$ otherwise. Since $g$ is jointly convex and $h$ is the infinimum over one coordinate (partial minimization), $h$ is convex.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      Let $epsilon>0$ be arbitrary and assume that
      $$
      u = alpha v + (1-alpha)w,quad alphain(0,1), ;u,v,winmathbb{R}^m.
      $$
      Assume $A^{-1}(v)={x|Ax = v}$ is not empty. By the assumption, we can find $x$ such that $Ax = v$ and
      $$
      h(v) leq f(x)leq h(v)+epsilon.
      $$
      Also assume that $A^{-1}(w)$ is not empty and find $x'$ such that
      $$
      h(w)leq f(x')leq h(w)+epsilon.
      $$
      Now, note that $alpha x+(1-alpha)x' in A^{-1}(u)$. Therefore, it holds that
      $$
      h(u) leq f(alpha x+(1-alpha)x') leq alpha f(x) +(1-alpha)f(x')leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) +epsilon.
      $$
      Since $epsilon>0$ was arbitrary, we get
      $$h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) ,
      $$
      as desired.



      If $A^{-1}(v)$ is empty, according to the definition, we have
      $$
      h(v) = inf_{xin A^{-1}(v)} f(x) = inf varnothing = infty.
      $$
      Hence if one of the sets $A^{-1}(v)$ or $A^{-1}(w)$ is empty, then
      $$
      h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w)=infty
      $$
      is obvious. (But it is desirable to assume that $A :mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^m$ is surjective.)






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        Let $epsilon>0$ be arbitrary and assume that
        $$
        u = alpha v + (1-alpha)w,quad alphain(0,1), ;u,v,winmathbb{R}^m.
        $$
        Assume $A^{-1}(v)={x|Ax = v}$ is not empty. By the assumption, we can find $x$ such that $Ax = v$ and
        $$
        h(v) leq f(x)leq h(v)+epsilon.
        $$
        Also assume that $A^{-1}(w)$ is not empty and find $x'$ such that
        $$
        h(w)leq f(x')leq h(w)+epsilon.
        $$
        Now, note that $alpha x+(1-alpha)x' in A^{-1}(u)$. Therefore, it holds that
        $$
        h(u) leq f(alpha x+(1-alpha)x') leq alpha f(x) +(1-alpha)f(x')leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) +epsilon.
        $$
        Since $epsilon>0$ was arbitrary, we get
        $$h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) ,
        $$
        as desired.



        If $A^{-1}(v)$ is empty, according to the definition, we have
        $$
        h(v) = inf_{xin A^{-1}(v)} f(x) = inf varnothing = infty.
        $$
        Hence if one of the sets $A^{-1}(v)$ or $A^{-1}(w)$ is empty, then
        $$
        h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w)=infty
        $$
        is obvious. (But it is desirable to assume that $A :mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^m$ is surjective.)






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Let $epsilon>0$ be arbitrary and assume that
          $$
          u = alpha v + (1-alpha)w,quad alphain(0,1), ;u,v,winmathbb{R}^m.
          $$
          Assume $A^{-1}(v)={x|Ax = v}$ is not empty. By the assumption, we can find $x$ such that $Ax = v$ and
          $$
          h(v) leq f(x)leq h(v)+epsilon.
          $$
          Also assume that $A^{-1}(w)$ is not empty and find $x'$ such that
          $$
          h(w)leq f(x')leq h(w)+epsilon.
          $$
          Now, note that $alpha x+(1-alpha)x' in A^{-1}(u)$. Therefore, it holds that
          $$
          h(u) leq f(alpha x+(1-alpha)x') leq alpha f(x) +(1-alpha)f(x')leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) +epsilon.
          $$
          Since $epsilon>0$ was arbitrary, we get
          $$h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) ,
          $$
          as desired.



          If $A^{-1}(v)$ is empty, according to the definition, we have
          $$
          h(v) = inf_{xin A^{-1}(v)} f(x) = inf varnothing = infty.
          $$
          Hence if one of the sets $A^{-1}(v)$ or $A^{-1}(w)$ is empty, then
          $$
          h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w)=infty
          $$
          is obvious. (But it is desirable to assume that $A :mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^m$ is surjective.)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Let $epsilon>0$ be arbitrary and assume that
          $$
          u = alpha v + (1-alpha)w,quad alphain(0,1), ;u,v,winmathbb{R}^m.
          $$
          Assume $A^{-1}(v)={x|Ax = v}$ is not empty. By the assumption, we can find $x$ such that $Ax = v$ and
          $$
          h(v) leq f(x)leq h(v)+epsilon.
          $$
          Also assume that $A^{-1}(w)$ is not empty and find $x'$ such that
          $$
          h(w)leq f(x')leq h(w)+epsilon.
          $$
          Now, note that $alpha x+(1-alpha)x' in A^{-1}(u)$. Therefore, it holds that
          $$
          h(u) leq f(alpha x+(1-alpha)x') leq alpha f(x) +(1-alpha)f(x')leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) +epsilon.
          $$
          Since $epsilon>0$ was arbitrary, we get
          $$h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w) ,
          $$
          as desired.



          If $A^{-1}(v)$ is empty, according to the definition, we have
          $$
          h(v) = inf_{xin A^{-1}(v)} f(x) = inf varnothing = infty.
          $$
          Hence if one of the sets $A^{-1}(v)$ or $A^{-1}(w)$ is empty, then
          $$
          h(u) leq alpha h(v)+(1-alpha)h(w)=infty
          $$
          is obvious. (But it is desirable to assume that $A :mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^m$ is surjective.)







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 20 '18 at 15:59









          SongSong

          16.5k1741




          16.5k1741























              0












              $begingroup$

              Consider $g(x,y) = f(x) + delta( (x,y) | Ax=y)$, where $delta$ is the support function that takes the value 0 if $Ax=y$, and $infty$ otherwise. Since $g$ is jointly convex and $h$ is the infinimum over one coordinate (partial minimization), $h$ is convex.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Consider $g(x,y) = f(x) + delta( (x,y) | Ax=y)$, where $delta$ is the support function that takes the value 0 if $Ax=y$, and $infty$ otherwise. Since $g$ is jointly convex and $h$ is the infinimum over one coordinate (partial minimization), $h$ is convex.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Consider $g(x,y) = f(x) + delta( (x,y) | Ax=y)$, where $delta$ is the support function that takes the value 0 if $Ax=y$, and $infty$ otherwise. Since $g$ is jointly convex and $h$ is the infinimum over one coordinate (partial minimization), $h$ is convex.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Consider $g(x,y) = f(x) + delta( (x,y) | Ax=y)$, where $delta$ is the support function that takes the value 0 if $Ax=y$, and $infty$ otherwise. Since $g$ is jointly convex and $h$ is the infinimum over one coordinate (partial minimization), $h$ is convex.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 20 '18 at 16:57









                  LinAlgLinAlg

                  10k1521




                  10k1521






























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