Union of two finite sets is finite [closed]












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§7.3 #1




Let $A$ and $B$ be a pair of disjoint finite sets. Use induction to prove that if $A approx m$ and $B approx n$, then $Acup B approx m+n$.
Conclude that the union of two finite sets is finite.




This problem is from Pinter's A Book of Set Theory.



please help










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closed as off-topic by Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister Dec 17 '18 at 15:08


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Map the elements of $Acup B$ as: ${1,2,cdots ,m}$ to the elements of $A$ and the ${m+1,m+2,cdots ,m+n}$ to the elements of $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Yadati Kiran
    Dec 17 '18 at 6:37


















-1












$begingroup$


§7.3 #1




Let $A$ and $B$ be a pair of disjoint finite sets. Use induction to prove that if $A approx m$ and $B approx n$, then $Acup B approx m+n$.
Conclude that the union of two finite sets is finite.




This problem is from Pinter's A Book of Set Theory.



please help










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister Dec 17 '18 at 15:08


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Map the elements of $Acup B$ as: ${1,2,cdots ,m}$ to the elements of $A$ and the ${m+1,m+2,cdots ,m+n}$ to the elements of $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Yadati Kiran
    Dec 17 '18 at 6:37
















-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


§7.3 #1




Let $A$ and $B$ be a pair of disjoint finite sets. Use induction to prove that if $A approx m$ and $B approx n$, then $Acup B approx m+n$.
Conclude that the union of two finite sets is finite.




This problem is from Pinter's A Book of Set Theory.



please help










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




§7.3 #1




Let $A$ and $B$ be a pair of disjoint finite sets. Use induction to prove that if $A approx m$ and $B approx n$, then $Acup B approx m+n$.
Conclude that the union of two finite sets is finite.




This problem is from Pinter's A Book of Set Theory.



please help







elementary-set-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 17 '18 at 6:08









Bungo

13.7k22148




13.7k22148










asked Dec 17 '18 at 6:07









math909math909

31




31




closed as off-topic by Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister Dec 17 '18 at 15:08


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister Dec 17 '18 at 15:08


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Ben, user21820, Leila, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Adrian Keister

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Map the elements of $Acup B$ as: ${1,2,cdots ,m}$ to the elements of $A$ and the ${m+1,m+2,cdots ,m+n}$ to the elements of $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Yadati Kiran
    Dec 17 '18 at 6:37
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Map the elements of $Acup B$ as: ${1,2,cdots ,m}$ to the elements of $A$ and the ${m+1,m+2,cdots ,m+n}$ to the elements of $B$.
    $endgroup$
    – Yadati Kiran
    Dec 17 '18 at 6:37










1




1




$begingroup$
Map the elements of $Acup B$ as: ${1,2,cdots ,m}$ to the elements of $A$ and the ${m+1,m+2,cdots ,m+n}$ to the elements of $B$.
$endgroup$
– Yadati Kiran
Dec 17 '18 at 6:37






$begingroup$
Map the elements of $Acup B$ as: ${1,2,cdots ,m}$ to the elements of $A$ and the ${m+1,m+2,cdots ,m+n}$ to the elements of $B$.
$endgroup$
– Yadati Kiran
Dec 17 '18 at 6:37












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

If either $A$ or $B$ is empty, answer is clear. So let $A$ and $B$ be non empty, that is $m, n geq 1$. We will fix $m$ and use induction on $n$. We have map from $A$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m rbrace $
.



Base case $n=1$: $B$ has 1 element disjoint from $A$, map this element to $m+1$, and thus we get a map from $Acup B$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m+1 rbrace $
.



Assume the statement is true for any set (disjoint with $A$) with $n$ elements, now we need to prove for $n+1$. Split $B$ into two sets one with $n$ elements and other with 1 element. I will leave the conclusion for you.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
    $endgroup$
    – 1.414212
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:59


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

If either $A$ or $B$ is empty, answer is clear. So let $A$ and $B$ be non empty, that is $m, n geq 1$. We will fix $m$ and use induction on $n$. We have map from $A$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m rbrace $
.



Base case $n=1$: $B$ has 1 element disjoint from $A$, map this element to $m+1$, and thus we get a map from $Acup B$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m+1 rbrace $
.



Assume the statement is true for any set (disjoint with $A$) with $n$ elements, now we need to prove for $n+1$. Split $B$ into two sets one with $n$ elements and other with 1 element. I will leave the conclusion for you.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
    $endgroup$
    – 1.414212
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:59
















1












$begingroup$

If either $A$ or $B$ is empty, answer is clear. So let $A$ and $B$ be non empty, that is $m, n geq 1$. We will fix $m$ and use induction on $n$. We have map from $A$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m rbrace $
.



Base case $n=1$: $B$ has 1 element disjoint from $A$, map this element to $m+1$, and thus we get a map from $Acup B$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m+1 rbrace $
.



Assume the statement is true for any set (disjoint with $A$) with $n$ elements, now we need to prove for $n+1$. Split $B$ into two sets one with $n$ elements and other with 1 element. I will leave the conclusion for you.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
    $endgroup$
    – 1.414212
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:59














1












1








1





$begingroup$

If either $A$ or $B$ is empty, answer is clear. So let $A$ and $B$ be non empty, that is $m, n geq 1$. We will fix $m$ and use induction on $n$. We have map from $A$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m rbrace $
.



Base case $n=1$: $B$ has 1 element disjoint from $A$, map this element to $m+1$, and thus we get a map from $Acup B$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m+1 rbrace $
.



Assume the statement is true for any set (disjoint with $A$) with $n$ elements, now we need to prove for $n+1$. Split $B$ into two sets one with $n$ elements and other with 1 element. I will leave the conclusion for you.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



If either $A$ or $B$ is empty, answer is clear. So let $A$ and $B$ be non empty, that is $m, n geq 1$. We will fix $m$ and use induction on $n$. We have map from $A$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m rbrace $
.



Base case $n=1$: $B$ has 1 element disjoint from $A$, map this element to $m+1$, and thus we get a map from $Acup B$ to $
lbrace 1,2,3 ldots m+1 rbrace $
.



Assume the statement is true for any set (disjoint with $A$) with $n$ elements, now we need to prove for $n+1$. Split $B$ into two sets one with $n$ elements and other with 1 element. I will leave the conclusion for you.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 17 '18 at 8:07









1.4142121.414212

507




507








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
    $endgroup$
    – 1.414212
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:59














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
    $endgroup$
    – celtschk
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
    $endgroup$
    – 1.414212
    Dec 17 '18 at 8:59








1




1




$begingroup$
If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 17 '18 at 8:43




$begingroup$
If the answer for the empty set is clear, that is a good reason to use that as base case, instead of treating it as special case and starting with the base case $1$. Unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0to1$, of course, but that's not the case here.
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 17 '18 at 8:43












$begingroup$
Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
$endgroup$
– 1.414212
Dec 17 '18 at 8:59




$begingroup$
Yes. That is correct. The mind always start with $n=1$. But it is good that you mentioned "unless the logic used in the induction step fails for $0 rightarrow 1$".
$endgroup$
– 1.414212
Dec 17 '18 at 8:59



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