Prove $L^1(mathbb{R})cap L^2(mathbb{R})$ has empty interior both in $L^1(mathbb{R})$ and in $L^2(mathbb{R})$












2












$begingroup$


I suppose it has interior, so we can find an open ball of radius epsilon in $L^1(mathbb{R})cap L^2(mathbb{R})$ and so that ball is contained in both the sets, so we can write:
$$B_varepsilon={u(x)in L^1(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^1}<varepsilon}={u(x)in L^2(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^2}<varepsilon}$$
But now I can't find the contradiction. I tried to compute the norms but I can't end with a contradiction. I can't find it at all. I don't know if this is the right way.










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  • $begingroup$
    Maybe this can help math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560595/…. It is not exactly your question, but it is close and can be adapted I think.
    $endgroup$
    – zwim
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interior where? Please edit the question so that it makes sense.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:23










  • $begingroup$
    @zwim Thanks man.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:26
















2












$begingroup$


I suppose it has interior, so we can find an open ball of radius epsilon in $L^1(mathbb{R})cap L^2(mathbb{R})$ and so that ball is contained in both the sets, so we can write:
$$B_varepsilon={u(x)in L^1(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^1}<varepsilon}={u(x)in L^2(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^2}<varepsilon}$$
But now I can't find the contradiction. I tried to compute the norms but I can't end with a contradiction. I can't find it at all. I don't know if this is the right way.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Maybe this can help math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560595/…. It is not exactly your question, but it is close and can be adapted I think.
    $endgroup$
    – zwim
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interior where? Please edit the question so that it makes sense.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:23










  • $begingroup$
    @zwim Thanks man.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:26














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I suppose it has interior, so we can find an open ball of radius epsilon in $L^1(mathbb{R})cap L^2(mathbb{R})$ and so that ball is contained in both the sets, so we can write:
$$B_varepsilon={u(x)in L^1(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^1}<varepsilon}={u(x)in L^2(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^2}<varepsilon}$$
But now I can't find the contradiction. I tried to compute the norms but I can't end with a contradiction. I can't find it at all. I don't know if this is the right way.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I suppose it has interior, so we can find an open ball of radius epsilon in $L^1(mathbb{R})cap L^2(mathbb{R})$ and so that ball is contained in both the sets, so we can write:
$$B_varepsilon={u(x)in L^1(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^1}<varepsilon}={u(x)in L^2(mathbb{R}):||u(x)||_{L^2}<varepsilon}$$
But now I can't find the contradiction. I tried to compute the norms but I can't end with a contradiction. I can't find it at all. I don't know if this is the right way.







functional-analysis lebesgue-measure






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edited Dec 2 '18 at 13:36









Andrés E. Caicedo

65k8158246




65k8158246










asked Dec 2 '18 at 11:59









james wattjames watt

34610




34610












  • $begingroup$
    Maybe this can help math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560595/…. It is not exactly your question, but it is close and can be adapted I think.
    $endgroup$
    – zwim
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interior where? Please edit the question so that it makes sense.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:23










  • $begingroup$
    @zwim Thanks man.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:26


















  • $begingroup$
    Maybe this can help math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560595/…. It is not exactly your question, but it is close and can be adapted I think.
    $endgroup$
    – zwim
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:10






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Interior where? Please edit the question so that it makes sense.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:23










  • $begingroup$
    @zwim Thanks man.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:26
















$begingroup$
Maybe this can help math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560595/…. It is not exactly your question, but it is close and can be adapted I think.
$endgroup$
– zwim
Dec 2 '18 at 12:10




$begingroup$
Maybe this can help math.stackexchange.com/questions/2560595/…. It is not exactly your question, but it is close and can be adapted I think.
$endgroup$
– zwim
Dec 2 '18 at 12:10




1




1




$begingroup$
Interior where? Please edit the question so that it makes sense.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 2 '18 at 12:23




$begingroup$
Interior where? Please edit the question so that it makes sense.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 2 '18 at 12:23












$begingroup$
@zwim Thanks man.
$endgroup$
– james watt
Dec 2 '18 at 12:26




$begingroup$
@zwim Thanks man.
$endgroup$
– james watt
Dec 2 '18 at 12:26










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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4












$begingroup$

Suppose $f$ is an interior point in $L^{2}$. Consider $f+frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$. Show that this sequence converges to $f$ in $L^{2}$ and none of these functions are in $L^{1}$. This proves that interior in $L^{2}$ is empty. For interior in $L^{1}$ consider $f+frac 1 {nsqrt x} I_{0<x<1}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:57










  • $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 23:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 3 '18 at 23:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 5:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 23:18











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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4












$begingroup$

Suppose $f$ is an interior point in $L^{2}$. Consider $f+frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$. Show that this sequence converges to $f$ in $L^{2}$ and none of these functions are in $L^{1}$. This proves that interior in $L^{2}$ is empty. For interior in $L^{1}$ consider $f+frac 1 {nsqrt x} I_{0<x<1}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:57










  • $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 23:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 3 '18 at 23:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 5:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 23:18
















4












$begingroup$

Suppose $f$ is an interior point in $L^{2}$. Consider $f+frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$. Show that this sequence converges to $f$ in $L^{2}$ and none of these functions are in $L^{1}$. This proves that interior in $L^{2}$ is empty. For interior in $L^{1}$ consider $f+frac 1 {nsqrt x} I_{0<x<1}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:57










  • $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 23:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 3 '18 at 23:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 5:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 23:18














4












4








4





$begingroup$

Suppose $f$ is an interior point in $L^{2}$. Consider $f+frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$. Show that this sequence converges to $f$ in $L^{2}$ and none of these functions are in $L^{1}$. This proves that interior in $L^{2}$ is empty. For interior in $L^{1}$ consider $f+frac 1 {nsqrt x} I_{0<x<1}$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Suppose $f$ is an interior point in $L^{2}$. Consider $f+frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$. Show that this sequence converges to $f$ in $L^{2}$ and none of these functions are in $L^{1}$. This proves that interior in $L^{2}$ is empty. For interior in $L^{1}$ consider $f+frac 1 {nsqrt x} I_{0<x<1}$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 2 '18 at 12:28









Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

52.9k32055




52.9k32055












  • $begingroup$
    Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:57










  • $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 23:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 3 '18 at 23:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 5:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 23:18


















  • $begingroup$
    Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – james watt
    Dec 2 '18 at 12:57










  • $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 2 '18 at 23:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 3 '18 at 23:21








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 5:15








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 4 '18 at 23:18
















$begingroup$
Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– james watt
Dec 2 '18 at 12:57




$begingroup$
Nice, I'm trying to understand all the things you put here. If I'll have other doubts I'll write here. Thanks.
$endgroup$
– james watt
Dec 2 '18 at 12:57












$begingroup$
@jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 2 '18 at 23:11




$begingroup$
@jameswatt Most welcome I will try to clear all your doubts.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 2 '18 at 23:11




2




2




$begingroup$
@jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 3 '18 at 23:21






$begingroup$
@jameswatt Since $f$ is already in $L^{1}$ we cannot have the sum in $L^{1}$ unless the second term is in $L^{1}$. But $frac 1 {nx} I_{x>1}$ is not in $L^{1}$ for any $n$. BTW $int_1^{infty} frac 1 x dx=infty$, not zero.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 3 '18 at 23:21






2




2




$begingroup$
@soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 4 '18 at 5:15






$begingroup$
@soundwave $lim infty$ is not $0$. Besides, there was no limit; we had to just compute the integral for fixed $n$.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 4 '18 at 5:15






2




2




$begingroup$
@jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 4 '18 at 23:18




$begingroup$
@jameswatt You have used the inequality $|a+b| >|b|$ which is false. Your proof is almost same as mine but you have made a mistake in the proof.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 4 '18 at 23:18


















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