Is it possible to observe the residue?












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I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



Do you have any idea ?










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    0














    I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



    Do you have any idea ?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



      Do you have any idea ?










      share|cite|improve this question













      I was wondering if there is a way to recognise the value (or at least to say if it is non zero) just by observing the plot of a complex function? for instance, looking at (x,y,real(f)) or (x,y,im(f) ).



      Do you have any idea ?







      complex-analysis






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      asked Nov 28 '18 at 18:47









      Marine Galantin

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      635212






















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          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28











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          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28
















          1














          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28














          1












          1








          1






          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          No. Take $f(z)=frac1{z^2}$ and $g(z)=frac1{z^2}+frac1z$. Then $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(f(z)bigr)=0$ and $operatorname{res}_{z=0}bigl(g(z)bigr)=1$. However, the graphs that you mentioned look the same with respect to both functions.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 28 '18 at 18:59









          José Carlos Santos

          151k22123224




          151k22123224












          • So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28


















          • So is there a way to interpret the residue?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:00






          • 2




            Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:02










          • Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
            – Marine Galantin
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:16












          • If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:21






          • 1




            But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 28 '18 at 19:28
















          So is there a way to interpret the residue?
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:00




          So is there a way to interpret the residue?
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:00




          2




          2




          Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:02




          Sure there is. The residue at $a$ being non zere is equivalent to the assertion that $f$ has no primitive near $a$.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:02












          Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:16






          Equivalent? Having a primitive Isn't equivalent to f being equal to the taylor expansion?
          – Marine Galantin
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:16














          If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:21




          If you are talking about residues, you are talking about singularities. Therefore, there is no Taylor expansion. The function $frac1z$ has no Taylor expansion centered at $0$.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:21




          1




          1




          But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:28




          But $frac1{z^2}$ has residue $0$ and it has a primitive: $-frac1z$.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Nov 28 '18 at 19:28


















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