Spm test question(Combination) [closed]












0














$binom{y}{m}=binom{y}{n}$,



How should I express y in terms of m and n?










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closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery Nov 28 at 4:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • Accept the answer if you have understood
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 27 at 14:43






  • 1




    By definition $binom{n}{m}=frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=frac{n!}{(n-m)!(n-(n-m))!}=binom{n}{n-m}$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 27 at 14:47


















0














$binom{y}{m}=binom{y}{n}$,



How should I express y in terms of m and n?










share|cite|improve this question















closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery Nov 28 at 4:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • Accept the answer if you have understood
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 27 at 14:43






  • 1




    By definition $binom{n}{m}=frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=frac{n!}{(n-m)!(n-(n-m))!}=binom{n}{n-m}$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 27 at 14:47
















0












0








0







$binom{y}{m}=binom{y}{n}$,



How should I express y in terms of m and n?










share|cite|improve this question















$binom{y}{m}=binom{y}{n}$,



How should I express y in terms of m and n?







combinatorics combinations factorial






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edited Nov 27 at 14:57









mathnoob

1,794422




1,794422










asked Nov 27 at 14:30









lukhman rahim

1




1




closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery Nov 28 at 4:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery Nov 28 at 4:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Adrian Keister, user10354138, Davide Giraudo, Brahadeesh, Aaron Montgomery

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • Accept the answer if you have understood
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 27 at 14:43






  • 1




    By definition $binom{n}{m}=frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=frac{n!}{(n-m)!(n-(n-m))!}=binom{n}{n-m}$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 27 at 14:47




















  • Accept the answer if you have understood
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 27 at 14:43






  • 1




    By definition $binom{n}{m}=frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=frac{n!}{(n-m)!(n-(n-m))!}=binom{n}{n-m}$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 27 at 14:47


















Accept the answer if you have understood
– Akash Roy
Nov 27 at 14:43




Accept the answer if you have understood
– Akash Roy
Nov 27 at 14:43




1




1




By definition $binom{n}{m}=frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=frac{n!}{(n-m)!(n-(n-m))!}=binom{n}{n-m}$.
– mathnoob
Nov 27 at 14:47






By definition $binom{n}{m}=frac{n!}{m!(n-m)!}=frac{n!}{(n-m)!(n-(n-m))!}=binom{n}{n-m}$.
– mathnoob
Nov 27 at 14:47












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1














It is important to note that



$${y choose m} = {y choose n} iff color{blue}{m+n = y}$$



Unless $m = n$, which is trivial. You cannot express $y$ in terms of $m$ and $n$ in that case because $y$ could be any positive integer.





This can be shown very easily.



$${y choose m} = {y choose n}$$



Substituting $color{blue}{m = y-n}$, you get



$${y choose color{blue}{y-n}} = {y choose n}$$



$$frac{y!}{(y-n)!(y-(y-n))!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



$$frac{y!}{(y-n)!n!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



Which is true. You can also prove this backwards.



$$frac{y!}{m!(y-m)!} = frac{y!}{(y-m)!(y-(y-m))!}$$



$${y choose m} = {y choose y-m}$$






share|cite|improve this answer































    0














    There is an identity that



    If $nchoose m$$=$$nchoose a$ then either $a=m$ or $a+m=n$ .
    In your case $y=n+m$ .






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • @lukhman rahim accept my answer
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 28 at 10:20


















    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1














    It is important to note that



    $${y choose m} = {y choose n} iff color{blue}{m+n = y}$$



    Unless $m = n$, which is trivial. You cannot express $y$ in terms of $m$ and $n$ in that case because $y$ could be any positive integer.





    This can be shown very easily.



    $${y choose m} = {y choose n}$$



    Substituting $color{blue}{m = y-n}$, you get



    $${y choose color{blue}{y-n}} = {y choose n}$$



    $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!(y-(y-n))!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



    $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!n!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



    Which is true. You can also prove this backwards.



    $$frac{y!}{m!(y-m)!} = frac{y!}{(y-m)!(y-(y-m))!}$$



    $${y choose m} = {y choose y-m}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      1














      It is important to note that



      $${y choose m} = {y choose n} iff color{blue}{m+n = y}$$



      Unless $m = n$, which is trivial. You cannot express $y$ in terms of $m$ and $n$ in that case because $y$ could be any positive integer.





      This can be shown very easily.



      $${y choose m} = {y choose n}$$



      Substituting $color{blue}{m = y-n}$, you get



      $${y choose color{blue}{y-n}} = {y choose n}$$



      $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!(y-(y-n))!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



      $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!n!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



      Which is true. You can also prove this backwards.



      $$frac{y!}{m!(y-m)!} = frac{y!}{(y-m)!(y-(y-m))!}$$



      $${y choose m} = {y choose y-m}$$






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        1












        1








        1






        It is important to note that



        $${y choose m} = {y choose n} iff color{blue}{m+n = y}$$



        Unless $m = n$, which is trivial. You cannot express $y$ in terms of $m$ and $n$ in that case because $y$ could be any positive integer.





        This can be shown very easily.



        $${y choose m} = {y choose n}$$



        Substituting $color{blue}{m = y-n}$, you get



        $${y choose color{blue}{y-n}} = {y choose n}$$



        $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!(y-(y-n))!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



        $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!n!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



        Which is true. You can also prove this backwards.



        $$frac{y!}{m!(y-m)!} = frac{y!}{(y-m)!(y-(y-m))!}$$



        $${y choose m} = {y choose y-m}$$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        It is important to note that



        $${y choose m} = {y choose n} iff color{blue}{m+n = y}$$



        Unless $m = n$, which is trivial. You cannot express $y$ in terms of $m$ and $n$ in that case because $y$ could be any positive integer.





        This can be shown very easily.



        $${y choose m} = {y choose n}$$



        Substituting $color{blue}{m = y-n}$, you get



        $${y choose color{blue}{y-n}} = {y choose n}$$



        $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!(y-(y-n))!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



        $$frac{y!}{(y-n)!n!} = frac{y!}{n!(y-n)!}$$



        Which is true. You can also prove this backwards.



        $$frac{y!}{m!(y-m)!} = frac{y!}{(y-m)!(y-(y-m))!}$$



        $${y choose m} = {y choose y-m}$$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 27 at 15:49

























        answered Nov 27 at 15:12









        KM101

        4,836421




        4,836421























            0














            There is an identity that



            If $nchoose m$$=$$nchoose a$ then either $a=m$ or $a+m=n$ .
            In your case $y=n+m$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • @lukhman rahim accept my answer
              – Akash Roy
              Nov 28 at 10:20
















            0














            There is an identity that



            If $nchoose m$$=$$nchoose a$ then either $a=m$ or $a+m=n$ .
            In your case $y=n+m$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • @lukhman rahim accept my answer
              – Akash Roy
              Nov 28 at 10:20














            0












            0








            0






            There is an identity that



            If $nchoose m$$=$$nchoose a$ then either $a=m$ or $a+m=n$ .
            In your case $y=n+m$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer












            There is an identity that



            If $nchoose m$$=$$nchoose a$ then either $a=m$ or $a+m=n$ .
            In your case $y=n+m$ .







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 27 at 14:43









            Akash Roy

            1




            1












            • @lukhman rahim accept my answer
              – Akash Roy
              Nov 28 at 10:20


















            • @lukhman rahim accept my answer
              – Akash Roy
              Nov 28 at 10:20
















            @lukhman rahim accept my answer
            – Akash Roy
            Nov 28 at 10:20




            @lukhman rahim accept my answer
            – Akash Roy
            Nov 28 at 10:20



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