Harmonic functions on $S^2$
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Consider the sphere $S^2 = lbrace (x,y,z) : x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1 rbrace$. This is a smooth manifold in $mathbb{R}^3$, and for a given point $s in S^2$, one can consider its coordinate neighborhood.
There are many ways to put a smooth structure on $S^2$, but all require at least two coordinate neighborhoods. One simple way is to make use of the local coordinates $theta, phi$ (azimuthal angle and inclination angle). For $s in U = S^2 setminus {(0,0,1), (0,0,-1)}$, define a coordinate map by
$ g : (0,2pi) times (0,pi) rightarrow U $
with formula given by
$ g(theta, phi) = (sin(phi) cos(theta), sin(phi) sin(theta), cos(phi)) $
This map is one-to-one, onto, and bicontinuous, so it is a homeomorphism. One can construct a similar map onto $V = S^2 setminus {(1,0,0),(-1,0,0)}$, so the whole sphere is covered. The fact that this defines a differentiable structure is easy to work out.
The question I want to ask is, are there any non-constant solutions to the equation
$ frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0 $
where $f : S^2 rightarrow R$ is a smooth function.
Furthermore, what sorts of boundary conditions are necessary in order to ensure uniqueness.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations differential-geometry
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider the sphere $S^2 = lbrace (x,y,z) : x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1 rbrace$. This is a smooth manifold in $mathbb{R}^3$, and for a given point $s in S^2$, one can consider its coordinate neighborhood.
There are many ways to put a smooth structure on $S^2$, but all require at least two coordinate neighborhoods. One simple way is to make use of the local coordinates $theta, phi$ (azimuthal angle and inclination angle). For $s in U = S^2 setminus {(0,0,1), (0,0,-1)}$, define a coordinate map by
$ g : (0,2pi) times (0,pi) rightarrow U $
with formula given by
$ g(theta, phi) = (sin(phi) cos(theta), sin(phi) sin(theta), cos(phi)) $
This map is one-to-one, onto, and bicontinuous, so it is a homeomorphism. One can construct a similar map onto $V = S^2 setminus {(1,0,0),(-1,0,0)}$, so the whole sphere is covered. The fact that this defines a differentiable structure is easy to work out.
The question I want to ask is, are there any non-constant solutions to the equation
$ frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0 $
where $f : S^2 rightarrow R$ is a smooth function.
Furthermore, what sorts of boundary conditions are necessary in order to ensure uniqueness.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations differential-geometry
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
But your expression $partial^2 f/partial theta^2 + partial^2 f/partial phi^2$ is not the Laplacian on a sphere! So your equation is not consistent with your title. (Also, you probably want to ask about whether there are non-constant solutions to the equation in question.)
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– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 10:15
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Where do you want the solution to live? Since $theta,phi$ is only defined in a coordinate chart, do you mean for the function $f$ to be a map from $U to mathbb{C}$? Do you require the function to extend to the north/south poles in any particular way? Continuously? With continuous derivatives?
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– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 10:20
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These are both good comments and I will edit my question.
$endgroup$
– Eric Haengel
Nov 1 '10 at 10:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Consider the sphere $S^2 = lbrace (x,y,z) : x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1 rbrace$. This is a smooth manifold in $mathbb{R}^3$, and for a given point $s in S^2$, one can consider its coordinate neighborhood.
There are many ways to put a smooth structure on $S^2$, but all require at least two coordinate neighborhoods. One simple way is to make use of the local coordinates $theta, phi$ (azimuthal angle and inclination angle). For $s in U = S^2 setminus {(0,0,1), (0,0,-1)}$, define a coordinate map by
$ g : (0,2pi) times (0,pi) rightarrow U $
with formula given by
$ g(theta, phi) = (sin(phi) cos(theta), sin(phi) sin(theta), cos(phi)) $
This map is one-to-one, onto, and bicontinuous, so it is a homeomorphism. One can construct a similar map onto $V = S^2 setminus {(1,0,0),(-1,0,0)}$, so the whole sphere is covered. The fact that this defines a differentiable structure is easy to work out.
The question I want to ask is, are there any non-constant solutions to the equation
$ frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0 $
where $f : S^2 rightarrow R$ is a smooth function.
Furthermore, what sorts of boundary conditions are necessary in order to ensure uniqueness.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations differential-geometry
$endgroup$
Consider the sphere $S^2 = lbrace (x,y,z) : x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 1 rbrace$. This is a smooth manifold in $mathbb{R}^3$, and for a given point $s in S^2$, one can consider its coordinate neighborhood.
There are many ways to put a smooth structure on $S^2$, but all require at least two coordinate neighborhoods. One simple way is to make use of the local coordinates $theta, phi$ (azimuthal angle and inclination angle). For $s in U = S^2 setminus {(0,0,1), (0,0,-1)}$, define a coordinate map by
$ g : (0,2pi) times (0,pi) rightarrow U $
with formula given by
$ g(theta, phi) = (sin(phi) cos(theta), sin(phi) sin(theta), cos(phi)) $
This map is one-to-one, onto, and bicontinuous, so it is a homeomorphism. One can construct a similar map onto $V = S^2 setminus {(1,0,0),(-1,0,0)}$, so the whole sphere is covered. The fact that this defines a differentiable structure is easy to work out.
The question I want to ask is, are there any non-constant solutions to the equation
$ frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0 $
where $f : S^2 rightarrow R$ is a smooth function.
Furthermore, what sorts of boundary conditions are necessary in order to ensure uniqueness.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations differential-geometry
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations differential-geometry
edited Nov 1 '10 at 10:47
Eric Haengel
asked Nov 1 '10 at 9:51
Eric HaengelEric Haengel
3,01411530
3,01411530
2
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But your expression $partial^2 f/partial theta^2 + partial^2 f/partial phi^2$ is not the Laplacian on a sphere! So your equation is not consistent with your title. (Also, you probably want to ask about whether there are non-constant solutions to the equation in question.)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 10:15
$begingroup$
Where do you want the solution to live? Since $theta,phi$ is only defined in a coordinate chart, do you mean for the function $f$ to be a map from $U to mathbb{C}$? Do you require the function to extend to the north/south poles in any particular way? Continuously? With continuous derivatives?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 10:20
$begingroup$
These are both good comments and I will edit my question.
$endgroup$
– Eric Haengel
Nov 1 '10 at 10:46
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
But your expression $partial^2 f/partial theta^2 + partial^2 f/partial phi^2$ is not the Laplacian on a sphere! So your equation is not consistent with your title. (Also, you probably want to ask about whether there are non-constant solutions to the equation in question.)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 10:15
$begingroup$
Where do you want the solution to live? Since $theta,phi$ is only defined in a coordinate chart, do you mean for the function $f$ to be a map from $U to mathbb{C}$? Do you require the function to extend to the north/south poles in any particular way? Continuously? With continuous derivatives?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 10:20
$begingroup$
These are both good comments and I will edit my question.
$endgroup$
– Eric Haengel
Nov 1 '10 at 10:46
2
2
$begingroup$
But your expression $partial^2 f/partial theta^2 + partial^2 f/partial phi^2$ is not the Laplacian on a sphere! So your equation is not consistent with your title. (Also, you probably want to ask about whether there are non-constant solutions to the equation in question.)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 10:15
$begingroup$
But your expression $partial^2 f/partial theta^2 + partial^2 f/partial phi^2$ is not the Laplacian on a sphere! So your equation is not consistent with your title. (Also, you probably want to ask about whether there are non-constant solutions to the equation in question.)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 10:15
$begingroup$
Where do you want the solution to live? Since $theta,phi$ is only defined in a coordinate chart, do you mean for the function $f$ to be a map from $U to mathbb{C}$? Do you require the function to extend to the north/south poles in any particular way? Continuously? With continuous derivatives?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 10:20
$begingroup$
Where do you want the solution to live? Since $theta,phi$ is only defined in a coordinate chart, do you mean for the function $f$ to be a map from $U to mathbb{C}$? Do you require the function to extend to the north/south poles in any particular way? Continuously? With continuous derivatives?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 10:20
$begingroup$
These are both good comments and I will edit my question.
$endgroup$
– Eric Haengel
Nov 1 '10 at 10:46
$begingroup$
These are both good comments and I will edit my question.
$endgroup$
– Eric Haengel
Nov 1 '10 at 10:46
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
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Since $f$ is a smooth function from $S^2to mathbb{R}$, it is a smooth function on your coordinate chart. It is easy to see that by periodicity, you also have that $f$ is a smooth function from $S^1times(0,pi)tomathbb{R}$.
Since $f$ is smooth on $S^2$, the limits
$$ lim_{phi to 0, pi} frac{1}{sin phi} frac{partial}{partial theta} f $$
need to exist and be finite: this is the requirement that $f$ is smooth in "the other chart". Therefore you have that $partial_theta f to 0$ as $phi$ approach either boundary.
Your equation, however, requires that $partial_theta f$ be a harmonic function on $S^1times (0,pi)$, a compact domain with boundary. Using the maximum principle, you immediately have that $partial_theta f = 0$ everywhere. Plugging back into the equation, this implies $partial^2f/partial phi^2 = 0$.
And so $f$ must be a linear function in $phi$. And we now apply the smoothness constraint yet again:
At the north pole, smoothness will require that
$$ lim_{phi to 0} partial_phi f(theta,phi) = lim_{phi to 0} frac{1}{sin phi} partial_theta f(theta + pi/2, phi) = 0$$
which implies that the constant slope of the linear function $f(phi)$ is 0. And hence $f$ must be the constant function.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I understand your question correctly, you are aware that $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2}$ is not actually the Laplacian on a sphere, but you want to know whether there are any nontrivial smooth functions on $S^2$ which are harmonic with respect to this modified Laplacian. The answer is no.
A function $f(theta,phi)$ which satisfies $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ is really a harmonic function on the rectangle $[0,2pi] times [0,pi]$, which is mapped onto the sphere via $g^{-1}$. Continuity on the sphere requires that $f(theta,0) = text{const}$ (continuity at the north pole), $f(theta,pi) = text{const}$ (continuity at the south pole), and $f(0,phi) = f(2pi,phi) = h(phi)$ for some $h:[0,pi]rightarrow mathbb{R}$ (continuity across the prime meridian). For any $h$, the boundary conditions are independent of $theta$, so $f$ is a function of $phi$ alone. But then $frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ implies that $f$ is linear in $phi$. If the slope is nonzero, $f$ on the sphere fails to be smooth at the poles. Therefore, for $f$ to be smooth on the sphere and satisfy $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$, it has to be constant.
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Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
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@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Partial differentiation in Laplacian does't works at all in all curved surfaces. SO the answer is No. However I can't say anything about $S^n$ in an continuous series
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add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since $f$ is a smooth function from $S^2to mathbb{R}$, it is a smooth function on your coordinate chart. It is easy to see that by periodicity, you also have that $f$ is a smooth function from $S^1times(0,pi)tomathbb{R}$.
Since $f$ is smooth on $S^2$, the limits
$$ lim_{phi to 0, pi} frac{1}{sin phi} frac{partial}{partial theta} f $$
need to exist and be finite: this is the requirement that $f$ is smooth in "the other chart". Therefore you have that $partial_theta f to 0$ as $phi$ approach either boundary.
Your equation, however, requires that $partial_theta f$ be a harmonic function on $S^1times (0,pi)$, a compact domain with boundary. Using the maximum principle, you immediately have that $partial_theta f = 0$ everywhere. Plugging back into the equation, this implies $partial^2f/partial phi^2 = 0$.
And so $f$ must be a linear function in $phi$. And we now apply the smoothness constraint yet again:
At the north pole, smoothness will require that
$$ lim_{phi to 0} partial_phi f(theta,phi) = lim_{phi to 0} frac{1}{sin phi} partial_theta f(theta + pi/2, phi) = 0$$
which implies that the constant slope of the linear function $f(phi)$ is 0. And hence $f$ must be the constant function.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $f$ is a smooth function from $S^2to mathbb{R}$, it is a smooth function on your coordinate chart. It is easy to see that by periodicity, you also have that $f$ is a smooth function from $S^1times(0,pi)tomathbb{R}$.
Since $f$ is smooth on $S^2$, the limits
$$ lim_{phi to 0, pi} frac{1}{sin phi} frac{partial}{partial theta} f $$
need to exist and be finite: this is the requirement that $f$ is smooth in "the other chart". Therefore you have that $partial_theta f to 0$ as $phi$ approach either boundary.
Your equation, however, requires that $partial_theta f$ be a harmonic function on $S^1times (0,pi)$, a compact domain with boundary. Using the maximum principle, you immediately have that $partial_theta f = 0$ everywhere. Plugging back into the equation, this implies $partial^2f/partial phi^2 = 0$.
And so $f$ must be a linear function in $phi$. And we now apply the smoothness constraint yet again:
At the north pole, smoothness will require that
$$ lim_{phi to 0} partial_phi f(theta,phi) = lim_{phi to 0} frac{1}{sin phi} partial_theta f(theta + pi/2, phi) = 0$$
which implies that the constant slope of the linear function $f(phi)$ is 0. And hence $f$ must be the constant function.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $f$ is a smooth function from $S^2to mathbb{R}$, it is a smooth function on your coordinate chart. It is easy to see that by periodicity, you also have that $f$ is a smooth function from $S^1times(0,pi)tomathbb{R}$.
Since $f$ is smooth on $S^2$, the limits
$$ lim_{phi to 0, pi} frac{1}{sin phi} frac{partial}{partial theta} f $$
need to exist and be finite: this is the requirement that $f$ is smooth in "the other chart". Therefore you have that $partial_theta f to 0$ as $phi$ approach either boundary.
Your equation, however, requires that $partial_theta f$ be a harmonic function on $S^1times (0,pi)$, a compact domain with boundary. Using the maximum principle, you immediately have that $partial_theta f = 0$ everywhere. Plugging back into the equation, this implies $partial^2f/partial phi^2 = 0$.
And so $f$ must be a linear function in $phi$. And we now apply the smoothness constraint yet again:
At the north pole, smoothness will require that
$$ lim_{phi to 0} partial_phi f(theta,phi) = lim_{phi to 0} frac{1}{sin phi} partial_theta f(theta + pi/2, phi) = 0$$
which implies that the constant slope of the linear function $f(phi)$ is 0. And hence $f$ must be the constant function.
$endgroup$
Since $f$ is a smooth function from $S^2to mathbb{R}$, it is a smooth function on your coordinate chart. It is easy to see that by periodicity, you also have that $f$ is a smooth function from $S^1times(0,pi)tomathbb{R}$.
Since $f$ is smooth on $S^2$, the limits
$$ lim_{phi to 0, pi} frac{1}{sin phi} frac{partial}{partial theta} f $$
need to exist and be finite: this is the requirement that $f$ is smooth in "the other chart". Therefore you have that $partial_theta f to 0$ as $phi$ approach either boundary.
Your equation, however, requires that $partial_theta f$ be a harmonic function on $S^1times (0,pi)$, a compact domain with boundary. Using the maximum principle, you immediately have that $partial_theta f = 0$ everywhere. Plugging back into the equation, this implies $partial^2f/partial phi^2 = 0$.
And so $f$ must be a linear function in $phi$. And we now apply the smoothness constraint yet again:
At the north pole, smoothness will require that
$$ lim_{phi to 0} partial_phi f(theta,phi) = lim_{phi to 0} frac{1}{sin phi} partial_theta f(theta + pi/2, phi) = 0$$
which implies that the constant slope of the linear function $f(phi)$ is 0. And hence $f$ must be the constant function.
answered Nov 1 '10 at 11:49
Willie WongWillie Wong
55.8k10111212
55.8k10111212
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I understand your question correctly, you are aware that $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2}$ is not actually the Laplacian on a sphere, but you want to know whether there are any nontrivial smooth functions on $S^2$ which are harmonic with respect to this modified Laplacian. The answer is no.
A function $f(theta,phi)$ which satisfies $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ is really a harmonic function on the rectangle $[0,2pi] times [0,pi]$, which is mapped onto the sphere via $g^{-1}$. Continuity on the sphere requires that $f(theta,0) = text{const}$ (continuity at the north pole), $f(theta,pi) = text{const}$ (continuity at the south pole), and $f(0,phi) = f(2pi,phi) = h(phi)$ for some $h:[0,pi]rightarrow mathbb{R}$ (continuity across the prime meridian). For any $h$, the boundary conditions are independent of $theta$, so $f$ is a function of $phi$ alone. But then $frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ implies that $f$ is linear in $phi$. If the slope is nonzero, $f$ on the sphere fails to be smooth at the poles. Therefore, for $f$ to be smooth on the sphere and satisfy $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$, it has to be constant.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
$begingroup$
@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I understand your question correctly, you are aware that $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2}$ is not actually the Laplacian on a sphere, but you want to know whether there are any nontrivial smooth functions on $S^2$ which are harmonic with respect to this modified Laplacian. The answer is no.
A function $f(theta,phi)$ which satisfies $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ is really a harmonic function on the rectangle $[0,2pi] times [0,pi]$, which is mapped onto the sphere via $g^{-1}$. Continuity on the sphere requires that $f(theta,0) = text{const}$ (continuity at the north pole), $f(theta,pi) = text{const}$ (continuity at the south pole), and $f(0,phi) = f(2pi,phi) = h(phi)$ for some $h:[0,pi]rightarrow mathbb{R}$ (continuity across the prime meridian). For any $h$, the boundary conditions are independent of $theta$, so $f$ is a function of $phi$ alone. But then $frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ implies that $f$ is linear in $phi$. If the slope is nonzero, $f$ on the sphere fails to be smooth at the poles. Therefore, for $f$ to be smooth on the sphere and satisfy $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$, it has to be constant.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
$begingroup$
@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I understand your question correctly, you are aware that $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2}$ is not actually the Laplacian on a sphere, but you want to know whether there are any nontrivial smooth functions on $S^2$ which are harmonic with respect to this modified Laplacian. The answer is no.
A function $f(theta,phi)$ which satisfies $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ is really a harmonic function on the rectangle $[0,2pi] times [0,pi]$, which is mapped onto the sphere via $g^{-1}$. Continuity on the sphere requires that $f(theta,0) = text{const}$ (continuity at the north pole), $f(theta,pi) = text{const}$ (continuity at the south pole), and $f(0,phi) = f(2pi,phi) = h(phi)$ for some $h:[0,pi]rightarrow mathbb{R}$ (continuity across the prime meridian). For any $h$, the boundary conditions are independent of $theta$, so $f$ is a function of $phi$ alone. But then $frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ implies that $f$ is linear in $phi$. If the slope is nonzero, $f$ on the sphere fails to be smooth at the poles. Therefore, for $f$ to be smooth on the sphere and satisfy $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$, it has to be constant.
$endgroup$
If I understand your question correctly, you are aware that $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2}$ is not actually the Laplacian on a sphere, but you want to know whether there are any nontrivial smooth functions on $S^2$ which are harmonic with respect to this modified Laplacian. The answer is no.
A function $f(theta,phi)$ which satisfies $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ is really a harmonic function on the rectangle $[0,2pi] times [0,pi]$, which is mapped onto the sphere via $g^{-1}$. Continuity on the sphere requires that $f(theta,0) = text{const}$ (continuity at the north pole), $f(theta,pi) = text{const}$ (continuity at the south pole), and $f(0,phi) = f(2pi,phi) = h(phi)$ for some $h:[0,pi]rightarrow mathbb{R}$ (continuity across the prime meridian). For any $h$, the boundary conditions are independent of $theta$, so $f$ is a function of $phi$ alone. But then $frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$ implies that $f$ is linear in $phi$. If the slope is nonzero, $f$ on the sphere fails to be smooth at the poles. Therefore, for $f$ to be smooth on the sphere and satisfy $frac{partial^2 f}{partial theta^2} + frac{partial^2 f}{partial phi^2} = 0$, it has to be constant.
answered Nov 1 '10 at 11:46
RahulRahul
33.2k568173
33.2k568173
$begingroup$
Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
$begingroup$
@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
$begingroup$
@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
$endgroup$
– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
$begingroup$
Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
$begingroup$
Ah, you beat me to an answer :)
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 12:23
$begingroup$
@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
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– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
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@Willie: But yours is more precisely expressed :)
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– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 18:09
add a comment |
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Partial differentiation in Laplacian does't works at all in all curved surfaces. SO the answer is No. However I can't say anything about $S^n$ in an continuous series
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Partial differentiation in Laplacian does't works at all in all curved surfaces. SO the answer is No. However I can't say anything about $S^n$ in an continuous series
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Partial differentiation in Laplacian does't works at all in all curved surfaces. SO the answer is No. However I can't say anything about $S^n$ in an continuous series
$endgroup$
Partial differentiation in Laplacian does't works at all in all curved surfaces. SO the answer is No. However I can't say anything about $S^n$ in an continuous series
answered Dec 23 '18 at 14:50
user628840
add a comment |
add a comment |
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But your expression $partial^2 f/partial theta^2 + partial^2 f/partial phi^2$ is not the Laplacian on a sphere! So your equation is not consistent with your title. (Also, you probably want to ask about whether there are non-constant solutions to the equation in question.)
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– Rahul
Nov 1 '10 at 10:15
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Where do you want the solution to live? Since $theta,phi$ is only defined in a coordinate chart, do you mean for the function $f$ to be a map from $U to mathbb{C}$? Do you require the function to extend to the north/south poles in any particular way? Continuously? With continuous derivatives?
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– Willie Wong
Nov 1 '10 at 10:20
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These are both good comments and I will edit my question.
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– Eric Haengel
Nov 1 '10 at 10:46