Every perfect set has cardinality $2^{aleph_0}$?












0












$begingroup$


It is well known that perfect sets in $mathbb{R}^n$ are uncountable (e.g., baby Rudin states this). Recently I heard of this stronger result:




Every perfect set in $mathbb{R}^n$ has cardinality $2^{aleph_0}$.




This is easily proved if we assume the continuum hypothesis. However, this result does not rely on that. Is there a proof of this fact? And does this result hold for more general spaces (e.g., complete metric spaces)?



I understand that it's customary to show my effort here at math.SE, but honestly I have no idea how I should attempt at it...










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The proof is by showing there is a "Cantor set" in any such perfect sets
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Plummer
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    In answer to the question about whether it generalizes, the "natural setting" is Polish spaces en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_space en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_set_property
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:19


















0












$begingroup$


It is well known that perfect sets in $mathbb{R}^n$ are uncountable (e.g., baby Rudin states this). Recently I heard of this stronger result:




Every perfect set in $mathbb{R}^n$ has cardinality $2^{aleph_0}$.




This is easily proved if we assume the continuum hypothesis. However, this result does not rely on that. Is there a proof of this fact? And does this result hold for more general spaces (e.g., complete metric spaces)?



I understand that it's customary to show my effort here at math.SE, but honestly I have no idea how I should attempt at it...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The proof is by showing there is a "Cantor set" in any such perfect sets
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Plummer
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    In answer to the question about whether it generalizes, the "natural setting" is Polish spaces en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_space en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_set_property
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:19
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


It is well known that perfect sets in $mathbb{R}^n$ are uncountable (e.g., baby Rudin states this). Recently I heard of this stronger result:




Every perfect set in $mathbb{R}^n$ has cardinality $2^{aleph_0}$.




This is easily proved if we assume the continuum hypothesis. However, this result does not rely on that. Is there a proof of this fact? And does this result hold for more general spaces (e.g., complete metric spaces)?



I understand that it's customary to show my effort here at math.SE, but honestly I have no idea how I should attempt at it...










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




It is well known that perfect sets in $mathbb{R}^n$ are uncountable (e.g., baby Rudin states this). Recently I heard of this stronger result:




Every perfect set in $mathbb{R}^n$ has cardinality $2^{aleph_0}$.




This is easily proved if we assume the continuum hypothesis. However, this result does not rely on that. Is there a proof of this fact? And does this result hold for more general spaces (e.g., complete metric spaces)?



I understand that it's customary to show my effort here at math.SE, but honestly I have no idea how I should attempt at it...







general-topology descriptive-set-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 31 '18 at 18:57









Andrés E. Caicedo

65.8k8160251




65.8k8160251










asked Dec 31 '18 at 0:58









ColescuColescu

3,26711136




3,26711136








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The proof is by showing there is a "Cantor set" in any such perfect sets
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Plummer
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    In answer to the question about whether it generalizes, the "natural setting" is Polish spaces en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_space en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_set_property
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:19
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The proof is by showing there is a "Cantor set" in any such perfect sets
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Plummer
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:07










  • $begingroup$
    In answer to the question about whether it generalizes, the "natural setting" is Polish spaces en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_space en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_set_property
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 31 '18 at 1:19










2




2




$begingroup$
The proof is by showing there is a "Cantor set" in any such perfect sets
$endgroup$
– Paul Plummer
Dec 31 '18 at 1:07




$begingroup$
The proof is by showing there is a "Cantor set" in any such perfect sets
$endgroup$
– Paul Plummer
Dec 31 '18 at 1:07












$begingroup$
In answer to the question about whether it generalizes, the "natural setting" is Polish spaces en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_space en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_set_property
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Dec 31 '18 at 1:19






$begingroup$
In answer to the question about whether it generalizes, the "natural setting" is Polish spaces en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polish_space en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_set_property
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Dec 31 '18 at 1:19












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Yes, it does not require the continuum hypothesis to prove.



Suppose $P$ is a perfect set. WLOG (if not, restrict to an appropriate closed interval) $P$ is bounded. Then we can find two disjoint closed subsets, $l(P)$ and $r(P)$, which are each also perfect. And we can iterate this process, building such things as $r(l(r(P)))$ and so on.



Now remember that the intersection of a descending sequence of closed and bounded sets is nonempty. This means that for every infinite binary sequence, the corresponding descending sequence of perfect sets has a point in the intersection. For example - identifying "$r$" with $1$ and "$l$" with $0$ - the sequence $$f=0,1,0,1,,...$$ yields the sequence $$l(P)supseteq r(l(P))supseteq l(r(l(P)))supseteq r(l(r(l(P))))supseteq...,$$ and we pick a point $p_f$ in the intersection of this chain of perfect sets.



Now just check that if $fnot=g$ we have $p_fnot=p_g$ (HINT: $r(X)cap l(X)=emptyset$ ...).





It might seem like we used the axiom of choice here, in two places:




  • Choosing $l(X)$ and $r(X)$, for a perfect set $X$.


  • Choosing a point in the intersection of a decreasing sequence of closed and bounded sets.



However, we don't actually need AC here:




  • If $X$ is perfect, we can in fact show that there is a pair of rationals $p<q$ such that $Xcap (-infty, p]$ and $Xcap [q,infty)$ are each perfect. But $mathbb{Q}^2$ is well-orderable ...


  • There is in fact an easily-definable choice function for nonempty closed sets. (HINT: if the set is bounded from below, just pick the smallest element; now do you see how to deal with the not-bounded-from-below case?) We could also require that $l(X)$ and $r(X)$ have diameter at most one half of that of $X$ (where the diameter of a set is the supremum of the distances between any two points in the set).







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    $begingroup$

    Yes, it does not require the continuum hypothesis to prove.



    Suppose $P$ is a perfect set. WLOG (if not, restrict to an appropriate closed interval) $P$ is bounded. Then we can find two disjoint closed subsets, $l(P)$ and $r(P)$, which are each also perfect. And we can iterate this process, building such things as $r(l(r(P)))$ and so on.



    Now remember that the intersection of a descending sequence of closed and bounded sets is nonempty. This means that for every infinite binary sequence, the corresponding descending sequence of perfect sets has a point in the intersection. For example - identifying "$r$" with $1$ and "$l$" with $0$ - the sequence $$f=0,1,0,1,,...$$ yields the sequence $$l(P)supseteq r(l(P))supseteq l(r(l(P)))supseteq r(l(r(l(P))))supseteq...,$$ and we pick a point $p_f$ in the intersection of this chain of perfect sets.



    Now just check that if $fnot=g$ we have $p_fnot=p_g$ (HINT: $r(X)cap l(X)=emptyset$ ...).





    It might seem like we used the axiom of choice here, in two places:




    • Choosing $l(X)$ and $r(X)$, for a perfect set $X$.


    • Choosing a point in the intersection of a decreasing sequence of closed and bounded sets.



    However, we don't actually need AC here:




    • If $X$ is perfect, we can in fact show that there is a pair of rationals $p<q$ such that $Xcap (-infty, p]$ and $Xcap [q,infty)$ are each perfect. But $mathbb{Q}^2$ is well-orderable ...


    • There is in fact an easily-definable choice function for nonempty closed sets. (HINT: if the set is bounded from below, just pick the smallest element; now do you see how to deal with the not-bounded-from-below case?) We could also require that $l(X)$ and $r(X)$ have diameter at most one half of that of $X$ (where the diameter of a set is the supremum of the distances between any two points in the set).







    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      4












      $begingroup$

      Yes, it does not require the continuum hypothesis to prove.



      Suppose $P$ is a perfect set. WLOG (if not, restrict to an appropriate closed interval) $P$ is bounded. Then we can find two disjoint closed subsets, $l(P)$ and $r(P)$, which are each also perfect. And we can iterate this process, building such things as $r(l(r(P)))$ and so on.



      Now remember that the intersection of a descending sequence of closed and bounded sets is nonempty. This means that for every infinite binary sequence, the corresponding descending sequence of perfect sets has a point in the intersection. For example - identifying "$r$" with $1$ and "$l$" with $0$ - the sequence $$f=0,1,0,1,,...$$ yields the sequence $$l(P)supseteq r(l(P))supseteq l(r(l(P)))supseteq r(l(r(l(P))))supseteq...,$$ and we pick a point $p_f$ in the intersection of this chain of perfect sets.



      Now just check that if $fnot=g$ we have $p_fnot=p_g$ (HINT: $r(X)cap l(X)=emptyset$ ...).





      It might seem like we used the axiom of choice here, in two places:




      • Choosing $l(X)$ and $r(X)$, for a perfect set $X$.


      • Choosing a point in the intersection of a decreasing sequence of closed and bounded sets.



      However, we don't actually need AC here:




      • If $X$ is perfect, we can in fact show that there is a pair of rationals $p<q$ such that $Xcap (-infty, p]$ and $Xcap [q,infty)$ are each perfect. But $mathbb{Q}^2$ is well-orderable ...


      • There is in fact an easily-definable choice function for nonempty closed sets. (HINT: if the set is bounded from below, just pick the smallest element; now do you see how to deal with the not-bounded-from-below case?) We could also require that $l(X)$ and $r(X)$ have diameter at most one half of that of $X$ (where the diameter of a set is the supremum of the distances between any two points in the set).







      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        Yes, it does not require the continuum hypothesis to prove.



        Suppose $P$ is a perfect set. WLOG (if not, restrict to an appropriate closed interval) $P$ is bounded. Then we can find two disjoint closed subsets, $l(P)$ and $r(P)$, which are each also perfect. And we can iterate this process, building such things as $r(l(r(P)))$ and so on.



        Now remember that the intersection of a descending sequence of closed and bounded sets is nonempty. This means that for every infinite binary sequence, the corresponding descending sequence of perfect sets has a point in the intersection. For example - identifying "$r$" with $1$ and "$l$" with $0$ - the sequence $$f=0,1,0,1,,...$$ yields the sequence $$l(P)supseteq r(l(P))supseteq l(r(l(P)))supseteq r(l(r(l(P))))supseteq...,$$ and we pick a point $p_f$ in the intersection of this chain of perfect sets.



        Now just check that if $fnot=g$ we have $p_fnot=p_g$ (HINT: $r(X)cap l(X)=emptyset$ ...).





        It might seem like we used the axiom of choice here, in two places:




        • Choosing $l(X)$ and $r(X)$, for a perfect set $X$.


        • Choosing a point in the intersection of a decreasing sequence of closed and bounded sets.



        However, we don't actually need AC here:




        • If $X$ is perfect, we can in fact show that there is a pair of rationals $p<q$ such that $Xcap (-infty, p]$ and $Xcap [q,infty)$ are each perfect. But $mathbb{Q}^2$ is well-orderable ...


        • There is in fact an easily-definable choice function for nonempty closed sets. (HINT: if the set is bounded from below, just pick the smallest element; now do you see how to deal with the not-bounded-from-below case?) We could also require that $l(X)$ and $r(X)$ have diameter at most one half of that of $X$ (where the diameter of a set is the supremum of the distances between any two points in the set).







        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, it does not require the continuum hypothesis to prove.



        Suppose $P$ is a perfect set. WLOG (if not, restrict to an appropriate closed interval) $P$ is bounded. Then we can find two disjoint closed subsets, $l(P)$ and $r(P)$, which are each also perfect. And we can iterate this process, building such things as $r(l(r(P)))$ and so on.



        Now remember that the intersection of a descending sequence of closed and bounded sets is nonempty. This means that for every infinite binary sequence, the corresponding descending sequence of perfect sets has a point in the intersection. For example - identifying "$r$" with $1$ and "$l$" with $0$ - the sequence $$f=0,1,0,1,,...$$ yields the sequence $$l(P)supseteq r(l(P))supseteq l(r(l(P)))supseteq r(l(r(l(P))))supseteq...,$$ and we pick a point $p_f$ in the intersection of this chain of perfect sets.



        Now just check that if $fnot=g$ we have $p_fnot=p_g$ (HINT: $r(X)cap l(X)=emptyset$ ...).





        It might seem like we used the axiom of choice here, in two places:




        • Choosing $l(X)$ and $r(X)$, for a perfect set $X$.


        • Choosing a point in the intersection of a decreasing sequence of closed and bounded sets.



        However, we don't actually need AC here:




        • If $X$ is perfect, we can in fact show that there is a pair of rationals $p<q$ such that $Xcap (-infty, p]$ and $Xcap [q,infty)$ are each perfect. But $mathbb{Q}^2$ is well-orderable ...


        • There is in fact an easily-definable choice function for nonempty closed sets. (HINT: if the set is bounded from below, just pick the smallest element; now do you see how to deal with the not-bounded-from-below case?) We could also require that $l(X)$ and $r(X)$ have diameter at most one half of that of $X$ (where the diameter of a set is the supremum of the distances between any two points in the set).








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        answered Dec 31 '18 at 1:08









        Noah SchweberNoah Schweber

        127k10151293




        127k10151293






























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