Evaluate $int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^3(x)}{x}dx$












5












$begingroup$


I'm trying to evaluate the following integral:



$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^3(x)}{x}dx$$



I was playing around trying to numerically approximate the answer with known constants and found that the integral is almost exactly $frac{pi^4}{64}$. The integral seems to break down after about $11$ decimal places.



I have a suspicion that this stems from the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)}{x}dx$$
since this is exactly equal to $frac{pi^2}{8}$.



Also for the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^5(x)}{x}dx$$
This is suspicously close to $frac{pi^6}{128}$ but not exactly.
For some reason the above integrals diverges slightly from the some from of $frac{pi^n}{2^m}$ for some $n$ and $m$.




My question is: Why does this happen? And what are the true values of those integrals?











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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Expand the $operatorname{artanh}$ as $frac12logleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)$ which seems to reduce the problem overall to the evaluation of the two integrals $$int_0^1frac{log(1+x)^2log(1-x)}xtext{ and }int_0^1frac{log(1+x)log(1-x)^2}x$$ since the other two integrals can be evaluated exactly in terms of polyloagrithms according to WolframAlpha (and here).
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    Mathematica gives something slightly different with NIntegrate as well, though gives exact results with Integrate. The integrand is divergent at $x=1$, and numerical methods are usually problematic with such integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Ininterrompue
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:55


















5












$begingroup$


I'm trying to evaluate the following integral:



$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^3(x)}{x}dx$$



I was playing around trying to numerically approximate the answer with known constants and found that the integral is almost exactly $frac{pi^4}{64}$. The integral seems to break down after about $11$ decimal places.



I have a suspicion that this stems from the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)}{x}dx$$
since this is exactly equal to $frac{pi^2}{8}$.



Also for the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^5(x)}{x}dx$$
This is suspicously close to $frac{pi^6}{128}$ but not exactly.
For some reason the above integrals diverges slightly from the some from of $frac{pi^n}{2^m}$ for some $n$ and $m$.




My question is: Why does this happen? And what are the true values of those integrals?











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Expand the $operatorname{artanh}$ as $frac12logleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)$ which seems to reduce the problem overall to the evaluation of the two integrals $$int_0^1frac{log(1+x)^2log(1-x)}xtext{ and }int_0^1frac{log(1+x)log(1-x)^2}x$$ since the other two integrals can be evaluated exactly in terms of polyloagrithms according to WolframAlpha (and here).
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    Mathematica gives something slightly different with NIntegrate as well, though gives exact results with Integrate. The integrand is divergent at $x=1$, and numerical methods are usually problematic with such integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Ininterrompue
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:55
















5












5








5


2



$begingroup$


I'm trying to evaluate the following integral:



$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^3(x)}{x}dx$$



I was playing around trying to numerically approximate the answer with known constants and found that the integral is almost exactly $frac{pi^4}{64}$. The integral seems to break down after about $11$ decimal places.



I have a suspicion that this stems from the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)}{x}dx$$
since this is exactly equal to $frac{pi^2}{8}$.



Also for the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^5(x)}{x}dx$$
This is suspicously close to $frac{pi^6}{128}$ but not exactly.
For some reason the above integrals diverges slightly from the some from of $frac{pi^n}{2^m}$ for some $n$ and $m$.




My question is: Why does this happen? And what are the true values of those integrals?











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to evaluate the following integral:



$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^3(x)}{x}dx$$



I was playing around trying to numerically approximate the answer with known constants and found that the integral is almost exactly $frac{pi^4}{64}$. The integral seems to break down after about $11$ decimal places.



I have a suspicion that this stems from the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)}{x}dx$$
since this is exactly equal to $frac{pi^2}{8}$.



Also for the integral:
$$int_0^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}^5(x)}{x}dx$$
This is suspicously close to $frac{pi^6}{128}$ but not exactly.
For some reason the above integrals diverges slightly from the some from of $frac{pi^n}{2^m}$ for some $n$ and $m$.




My question is: Why does this happen? And what are the true values of those integrals?








calculus integration definite-integrals closed-form hyperbolic-functions






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 30 '18 at 19:29









Zacky

7,88511061




7,88511061










asked Dec 30 '18 at 17:24









Tom HimlerTom Himler

945314




945314












  • $begingroup$
    Expand the $operatorname{artanh}$ as $frac12logleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)$ which seems to reduce the problem overall to the evaluation of the two integrals $$int_0^1frac{log(1+x)^2log(1-x)}xtext{ and }int_0^1frac{log(1+x)log(1-x)^2}x$$ since the other two integrals can be evaluated exactly in terms of polyloagrithms according to WolframAlpha (and here).
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    Mathematica gives something slightly different with NIntegrate as well, though gives exact results with Integrate. The integrand is divergent at $x=1$, and numerical methods are usually problematic with such integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Ininterrompue
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:55




















  • $begingroup$
    Expand the $operatorname{artanh}$ as $frac12logleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)$ which seems to reduce the problem overall to the evaluation of the two integrals $$int_0^1frac{log(1+x)^2log(1-x)}xtext{ and }int_0^1frac{log(1+x)log(1-x)^2}x$$ since the other two integrals can be evaluated exactly in terms of polyloagrithms according to WolframAlpha (and here).
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:40












  • $begingroup$
    Mathematica gives something slightly different with NIntegrate as well, though gives exact results with Integrate. The integrand is divergent at $x=1$, and numerical methods are usually problematic with such integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Ininterrompue
    Dec 30 '18 at 17:55


















$begingroup$
Expand the $operatorname{artanh}$ as $frac12logleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)$ which seems to reduce the problem overall to the evaluation of the two integrals $$int_0^1frac{log(1+x)^2log(1-x)}xtext{ and }int_0^1frac{log(1+x)log(1-x)^2}x$$ since the other two integrals can be evaluated exactly in terms of polyloagrithms according to WolframAlpha (and here).
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Dec 30 '18 at 17:40






$begingroup$
Expand the $operatorname{artanh}$ as $frac12logleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)$ which seems to reduce the problem overall to the evaluation of the two integrals $$int_0^1frac{log(1+x)^2log(1-x)}xtext{ and }int_0^1frac{log(1+x)log(1-x)^2}x$$ since the other two integrals can be evaluated exactly in terms of polyloagrithms according to WolframAlpha (and here).
$endgroup$
– mrtaurho
Dec 30 '18 at 17:40














$begingroup$
Mathematica gives something slightly different with NIntegrate as well, though gives exact results with Integrate. The integrand is divergent at $x=1$, and numerical methods are usually problematic with such integrals.
$endgroup$
– Ininterrompue
Dec 30 '18 at 17:55






$begingroup$
Mathematica gives something slightly different with NIntegrate as well, though gives exact results with Integrate. The integrand is divergent at $x=1$, and numerical methods are usually problematic with such integrals.
$endgroup$
– Ininterrompue
Dec 30 '18 at 17:55












4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















11












$begingroup$

As MrTaurho pointed out in the comments, we can rewrite $,displaystyle{operatorname{arctanh}x=frac12 lnleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)}$, this gives:
$$I=int_{0}^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}dx=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3left(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dx$$
And we will substitute $displaystyle{frac{1-x}{1+x}=tRightarrow dx=-frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt}$ in order to get:
$$I=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{frac{1-t}{1+t}}frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt=-frac14 int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{1-t^2}dt=-frac14 sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 t^{2n}ln^3t dt$$
Now we consider the following integral: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^3 tdt=frac{d^3}{da^3} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=-frac{6}{(a+1)^4}$$
$$Rightarrow I=frac{6}{4}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^4}=frac32cdotfrac{pi^4}{96}=frac{pi^4}{64}$$





Of course this can be generalized for any power, so let's do that. Consider:



$$I(k)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^kx}{x}dx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^kleft(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dxoverset{largefrac{1-x}{1+x}=t}=frac{2(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^k t}{1-t^2}dt$$
$$=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 x^{2n}ln^k xdx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^k k!}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}$$
Where above we used the following result: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^k tdt=frac{d^k}{da^k} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=frac{(-1)^k k!}{(a+1)^{k+1}}$$
And finally it reduces to: $$I(k)=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} left(1-frac{1}{2^{k+1}}right)zeta(k+1)=boxed{frac{k!left(2^{k+1}-1right)}{4^k}zeta(k+1)}$$





One can verify the result by comparing to the one announced by Maple: $$I(5)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^5 x}{x}dx=frac{5!(2^6-1)}{4^5}zeta(6)=frac{945}{128}cdotfrac{pi^6}{945}=frac{pi^6}{128}$$






share|cite|improve this answer











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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:23












  • $begingroup$
    Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:35






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:38












  • $begingroup$
    Something like that :D
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:42






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:45





















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An alternative route to the general result: For $z in mathbb{C}$ with $operatorname{Re}(z) > 0$ we can let $x = tanh(t/2)$ and use the geometric series to find
begin{align}
int limits_0^1 frac{operatorname{artanh}^z (x)}{x} , mathrm{d} x &= frac{1}{2^z} int limits_0^infty frac{t^z}{sinh(t)} , mathrm{d} t = 2^{1-z} sum limits_{k=0}^infty int limits_0^infty t^z mathrm{e}^{-(2k+1) t} , mathrm{d} t \
&= 2^{1-z} int limits_0^infty u^z mathrm{e}^{-u} , mathrm{d} u sum limits_{k=0}^infty frac{1}{(2k+1)^{1+z}} = 2^{1-z} Gamma(1+z) lambda(1+z) \
&= frac{2^{1+z}-1}{4^z} Gamma(1+z) zeta(1+z) , ,
end{align}

where $lambda$ is the Dirichlet lambda function.






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    0












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    Here's another method. After expanding $text{arctanh}^3(x)=frac{1}{8}Big(log(1+x)-log(1-x)Big)^3$, you will get terms of the form $propto log^a(1+x)log^b(1-x)$(more precisely ${3choose k} (-1)^klog^{3-k}(1+x)log^k(1-x)$ for $k=0, 1, 2,3,$). If the power of the log is greater than $1$, use differentiation under the integral sign, using $frac{partial^k}{partial a^k} (1pm x)^a Big|_{a=0} = log^k(1pm x)$. With powers of log equal to $1$, expand the log into its Taylor series. You can also combine these methods if both types of powers appear in the integral.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:56












    • $begingroup$
      @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 19:04










    • $begingroup$
      Never heard of it. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 19:11










    • $begingroup$
      Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
      $endgroup$
      – Zachary
      Dec 30 '18 at 21:38



















    -2












    $begingroup$

    According to Maple,
    $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}; dx = frac{pi^4}{64} $$
    and
    $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^5}{x}; dx = frac{pi^6}{128} $$



    In fact, it seems $int_0^1 dfrac{text{arctanh}(x)^k}{x}; dx$ is a rational number times $zeta(k+1)$ for each positive integer $k$, with denominator a power of $2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 4




      $begingroup$
      What does Maple do to get these results?
      $endgroup$
      – Oscar Lanzi
      Dec 30 '18 at 17:54











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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

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    4 Answers
    4






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

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    active

    oldest

    votes









    11












    $begingroup$

    As MrTaurho pointed out in the comments, we can rewrite $,displaystyle{operatorname{arctanh}x=frac12 lnleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)}$, this gives:
    $$I=int_{0}^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}dx=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3left(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dx$$
    And we will substitute $displaystyle{frac{1-x}{1+x}=tRightarrow dx=-frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt}$ in order to get:
    $$I=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{frac{1-t}{1+t}}frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt=-frac14 int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{1-t^2}dt=-frac14 sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 t^{2n}ln^3t dt$$
    Now we consider the following integral: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^3 tdt=frac{d^3}{da^3} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=-frac{6}{(a+1)^4}$$
    $$Rightarrow I=frac{6}{4}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^4}=frac32cdotfrac{pi^4}{96}=frac{pi^4}{64}$$





    Of course this can be generalized for any power, so let's do that. Consider:



    $$I(k)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^kx}{x}dx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^kleft(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dxoverset{largefrac{1-x}{1+x}=t}=frac{2(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^k t}{1-t^2}dt$$
    $$=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 x^{2n}ln^k xdx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^k k!}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}$$
    Where above we used the following result: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^k tdt=frac{d^k}{da^k} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=frac{(-1)^k k!}{(a+1)^{k+1}}$$
    And finally it reduces to: $$I(k)=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} left(1-frac{1}{2^{k+1}}right)zeta(k+1)=boxed{frac{k!left(2^{k+1}-1right)}{4^k}zeta(k+1)}$$





    One can verify the result by comparing to the one announced by Maple: $$I(5)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^5 x}{x}dx=frac{5!(2^6-1)}{4^5}zeta(6)=frac{945}{128}cdotfrac{pi^6}{945}=frac{pi^6}{128}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:23












    • $begingroup$
      Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:35






    • 3




      $begingroup$
      @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:38












    • $begingroup$
      Something like that :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:42






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:45


















    11












    $begingroup$

    As MrTaurho pointed out in the comments, we can rewrite $,displaystyle{operatorname{arctanh}x=frac12 lnleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)}$, this gives:
    $$I=int_{0}^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}dx=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3left(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dx$$
    And we will substitute $displaystyle{frac{1-x}{1+x}=tRightarrow dx=-frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt}$ in order to get:
    $$I=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{frac{1-t}{1+t}}frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt=-frac14 int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{1-t^2}dt=-frac14 sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 t^{2n}ln^3t dt$$
    Now we consider the following integral: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^3 tdt=frac{d^3}{da^3} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=-frac{6}{(a+1)^4}$$
    $$Rightarrow I=frac{6}{4}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^4}=frac32cdotfrac{pi^4}{96}=frac{pi^4}{64}$$





    Of course this can be generalized for any power, so let's do that. Consider:



    $$I(k)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^kx}{x}dx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^kleft(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dxoverset{largefrac{1-x}{1+x}=t}=frac{2(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^k t}{1-t^2}dt$$
    $$=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 x^{2n}ln^k xdx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^k k!}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}$$
    Where above we used the following result: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^k tdt=frac{d^k}{da^k} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=frac{(-1)^k k!}{(a+1)^{k+1}}$$
    And finally it reduces to: $$I(k)=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} left(1-frac{1}{2^{k+1}}right)zeta(k+1)=boxed{frac{k!left(2^{k+1}-1right)}{4^k}zeta(k+1)}$$





    One can verify the result by comparing to the one announced by Maple: $$I(5)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^5 x}{x}dx=frac{5!(2^6-1)}{4^5}zeta(6)=frac{945}{128}cdotfrac{pi^6}{945}=frac{pi^6}{128}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:23












    • $begingroup$
      Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:35






    • 3




      $begingroup$
      @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:38












    • $begingroup$
      Something like that :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:42






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:45
















    11












    11








    11





    $begingroup$

    As MrTaurho pointed out in the comments, we can rewrite $,displaystyle{operatorname{arctanh}x=frac12 lnleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)}$, this gives:
    $$I=int_{0}^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}dx=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3left(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dx$$
    And we will substitute $displaystyle{frac{1-x}{1+x}=tRightarrow dx=-frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt}$ in order to get:
    $$I=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{frac{1-t}{1+t}}frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt=-frac14 int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{1-t^2}dt=-frac14 sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 t^{2n}ln^3t dt$$
    Now we consider the following integral: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^3 tdt=frac{d^3}{da^3} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=-frac{6}{(a+1)^4}$$
    $$Rightarrow I=frac{6}{4}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^4}=frac32cdotfrac{pi^4}{96}=frac{pi^4}{64}$$





    Of course this can be generalized for any power, so let's do that. Consider:



    $$I(k)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^kx}{x}dx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^kleft(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dxoverset{largefrac{1-x}{1+x}=t}=frac{2(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^k t}{1-t^2}dt$$
    $$=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 x^{2n}ln^k xdx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^k k!}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}$$
    Where above we used the following result: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^k tdt=frac{d^k}{da^k} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=frac{(-1)^k k!}{(a+1)^{k+1}}$$
    And finally it reduces to: $$I(k)=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} left(1-frac{1}{2^{k+1}}right)zeta(k+1)=boxed{frac{k!left(2^{k+1}-1right)}{4^k}zeta(k+1)}$$





    One can verify the result by comparing to the one announced by Maple: $$I(5)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^5 x}{x}dx=frac{5!(2^6-1)}{4^5}zeta(6)=frac{945}{128}cdotfrac{pi^6}{945}=frac{pi^6}{128}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    As MrTaurho pointed out in the comments, we can rewrite $,displaystyle{operatorname{arctanh}x=frac12 lnleft(frac{1+x}{1-x}right)}$, this gives:
    $$I=int_{0}^1 frac{operatorname{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}dx=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3left(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dx$$
    And we will substitute $displaystyle{frac{1-x}{1+x}=tRightarrow dx=-frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt}$ in order to get:
    $$I=-frac18int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{frac{1-t}{1+t}}frac{2}{(1+t)^2}dt=-frac14 int_0^1 frac{ln^3 t}{1-t^2}dt=-frac14 sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 t^{2n}ln^3t dt$$
    Now we consider the following integral: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^3 tdt=frac{d^3}{da^3} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=-frac{6}{(a+1)^4}$$
    $$Rightarrow I=frac{6}{4}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^4}=frac32cdotfrac{pi^4}{96}=frac{pi^4}{64}$$





    Of course this can be generalized for any power, so let's do that. Consider:



    $$I(k)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^kx}{x}dx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^kleft(frac{1-x}{1+x}right)}{x}dxoverset{largefrac{1-x}{1+x}=t}=frac{2(-1)^k}{2^k}int_0^1 frac{ln^k t}{1-t^2}dt$$
    $$=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty int_0^1 x^{2n}ln^k xdx=frac{(-1)^k}{2^{k-1}}sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(-1)^k k!}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} sum_{n=0}^infty frac{1}{(2n+1)^{k+1}}$$
    Where above we used the following result: $$int_0^1 t^a dt=frac{1}{a+1}Rightarrow int_0^1 t^a ln^k tdt=frac{d^k}{da^k} left(frac{1}{a+1}right)=frac{(-1)^k k!}{(a+1)^{k+1}}$$
    And finally it reduces to: $$I(k)=frac{k!}{2^{k-1}} left(1-frac{1}{2^{k+1}}right)zeta(k+1)=boxed{frac{k!left(2^{k+1}-1right)}{4^k}zeta(k+1)}$$





    One can verify the result by comparing to the one announced by Maple: $$I(5)=int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}^5 x}{x}dx=frac{5!(2^6-1)}{4^5}zeta(6)=frac{945}{128}cdotfrac{pi^6}{945}=frac{pi^6}{128}$$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 30 '18 at 19:36

























    answered Dec 30 '18 at 18:11









    ZackyZacky

    7,88511061




    7,88511061








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:23












    • $begingroup$
      Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:35






    • 3




      $begingroup$
      @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:38












    • $begingroup$
      Something like that :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:42






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:45
















    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:23












    • $begingroup$
      Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:35






    • 3




      $begingroup$
      @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
      $endgroup$
      – J.G.
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:38












    • $begingroup$
      Something like that :D
      $endgroup$
      – Zacky
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:42






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
      $endgroup$
      – mrtaurho
      Dec 30 '18 at 18:45










    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:23






    $begingroup$
    Well done! I did not thought about a self-similiar substitution here which reduces the whole problem quite well ^^ (+1) Moreover this explains why the odd powers can be written in terms of $pi$ since it always and up in values of the Zeta Function.
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:23














    $begingroup$
    Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:35




    $begingroup$
    Thansk ^_^ Now I am trying to generalize it but notations got messy :D
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:35




    3




    3




    $begingroup$
    @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:38






    $begingroup$
    @Zacky Best of luck with the notation. You should find, I think, that $int_0^1frac{operatorname{arctanh}^p x}{x}dx=p!left(2^{1-p}-4^{-p}right)zeta(p+1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:38














    $begingroup$
    Something like that :D
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:42




    $begingroup$
    Something like that :D
    $endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:42




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:45






    $begingroup$
    Your edit makes my own answer generalising your obtained solution redundant and I agree with your solution. Note there is a minor mistake hence you wrote again $ln^color{red}{3} t$ in your first line of your generalization.
    $endgroup$
    – mrtaurho
    Dec 30 '18 at 18:45













    2












    $begingroup$

    An alternative route to the general result: For $z in mathbb{C}$ with $operatorname{Re}(z) > 0$ we can let $x = tanh(t/2)$ and use the geometric series to find
    begin{align}
    int limits_0^1 frac{operatorname{artanh}^z (x)}{x} , mathrm{d} x &= frac{1}{2^z} int limits_0^infty frac{t^z}{sinh(t)} , mathrm{d} t = 2^{1-z} sum limits_{k=0}^infty int limits_0^infty t^z mathrm{e}^{-(2k+1) t} , mathrm{d} t \
    &= 2^{1-z} int limits_0^infty u^z mathrm{e}^{-u} , mathrm{d} u sum limits_{k=0}^infty frac{1}{(2k+1)^{1+z}} = 2^{1-z} Gamma(1+z) lambda(1+z) \
    &= frac{2^{1+z}-1}{4^z} Gamma(1+z) zeta(1+z) , ,
    end{align}

    where $lambda$ is the Dirichlet lambda function.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      An alternative route to the general result: For $z in mathbb{C}$ with $operatorname{Re}(z) > 0$ we can let $x = tanh(t/2)$ and use the geometric series to find
      begin{align}
      int limits_0^1 frac{operatorname{artanh}^z (x)}{x} , mathrm{d} x &= frac{1}{2^z} int limits_0^infty frac{t^z}{sinh(t)} , mathrm{d} t = 2^{1-z} sum limits_{k=0}^infty int limits_0^infty t^z mathrm{e}^{-(2k+1) t} , mathrm{d} t \
      &= 2^{1-z} int limits_0^infty u^z mathrm{e}^{-u} , mathrm{d} u sum limits_{k=0}^infty frac{1}{(2k+1)^{1+z}} = 2^{1-z} Gamma(1+z) lambda(1+z) \
      &= frac{2^{1+z}-1}{4^z} Gamma(1+z) zeta(1+z) , ,
      end{align}

      where $lambda$ is the Dirichlet lambda function.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        An alternative route to the general result: For $z in mathbb{C}$ with $operatorname{Re}(z) > 0$ we can let $x = tanh(t/2)$ and use the geometric series to find
        begin{align}
        int limits_0^1 frac{operatorname{artanh}^z (x)}{x} , mathrm{d} x &= frac{1}{2^z} int limits_0^infty frac{t^z}{sinh(t)} , mathrm{d} t = 2^{1-z} sum limits_{k=0}^infty int limits_0^infty t^z mathrm{e}^{-(2k+1) t} , mathrm{d} t \
        &= 2^{1-z} int limits_0^infty u^z mathrm{e}^{-u} , mathrm{d} u sum limits_{k=0}^infty frac{1}{(2k+1)^{1+z}} = 2^{1-z} Gamma(1+z) lambda(1+z) \
        &= frac{2^{1+z}-1}{4^z} Gamma(1+z) zeta(1+z) , ,
        end{align}

        where $lambda$ is the Dirichlet lambda function.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        An alternative route to the general result: For $z in mathbb{C}$ with $operatorname{Re}(z) > 0$ we can let $x = tanh(t/2)$ and use the geometric series to find
        begin{align}
        int limits_0^1 frac{operatorname{artanh}^z (x)}{x} , mathrm{d} x &= frac{1}{2^z} int limits_0^infty frac{t^z}{sinh(t)} , mathrm{d} t = 2^{1-z} sum limits_{k=0}^infty int limits_0^infty t^z mathrm{e}^{-(2k+1) t} , mathrm{d} t \
        &= 2^{1-z} int limits_0^infty u^z mathrm{e}^{-u} , mathrm{d} u sum limits_{k=0}^infty frac{1}{(2k+1)^{1+z}} = 2^{1-z} Gamma(1+z) lambda(1+z) \
        &= frac{2^{1+z}-1}{4^z} Gamma(1+z) zeta(1+z) , ,
        end{align}

        where $lambda$ is the Dirichlet lambda function.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 30 '18 at 21:07









        ComplexYetTrivialComplexYetTrivial

        4,9682631




        4,9682631























            0












            $begingroup$

            Here's another method. After expanding $text{arctanh}^3(x)=frac{1}{8}Big(log(1+x)-log(1-x)Big)^3$, you will get terms of the form $propto log^a(1+x)log^b(1-x)$(more precisely ${3choose k} (-1)^klog^{3-k}(1+x)log^k(1-x)$ for $k=0, 1, 2,3,$). If the power of the log is greater than $1$, use differentiation under the integral sign, using $frac{partial^k}{partial a^k} (1pm x)^a Big|_{a=0} = log^k(1pm x)$. With powers of log equal to $1$, expand the log into its Taylor series. You can also combine these methods if both types of powers appear in the integral.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 18:56












            • $begingroup$
              @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:04










            • $begingroup$
              Never heard of it. Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:11










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
              $endgroup$
              – Zachary
              Dec 30 '18 at 21:38
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Here's another method. After expanding $text{arctanh}^3(x)=frac{1}{8}Big(log(1+x)-log(1-x)Big)^3$, you will get terms of the form $propto log^a(1+x)log^b(1-x)$(more precisely ${3choose k} (-1)^klog^{3-k}(1+x)log^k(1-x)$ for $k=0, 1, 2,3,$). If the power of the log is greater than $1$, use differentiation under the integral sign, using $frac{partial^k}{partial a^k} (1pm x)^a Big|_{a=0} = log^k(1pm x)$. With powers of log equal to $1$, expand the log into its Taylor series. You can also combine these methods if both types of powers appear in the integral.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 18:56












            • $begingroup$
              @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:04










            • $begingroup$
              Never heard of it. Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:11










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
              $endgroup$
              – Zachary
              Dec 30 '18 at 21:38














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Here's another method. After expanding $text{arctanh}^3(x)=frac{1}{8}Big(log(1+x)-log(1-x)Big)^3$, you will get terms of the form $propto log^a(1+x)log^b(1-x)$(more precisely ${3choose k} (-1)^klog^{3-k}(1+x)log^k(1-x)$ for $k=0, 1, 2,3,$). If the power of the log is greater than $1$, use differentiation under the integral sign, using $frac{partial^k}{partial a^k} (1pm x)^a Big|_{a=0} = log^k(1pm x)$. With powers of log equal to $1$, expand the log into its Taylor series. You can also combine these methods if both types of powers appear in the integral.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Here's another method. After expanding $text{arctanh}^3(x)=frac{1}{8}Big(log(1+x)-log(1-x)Big)^3$, you will get terms of the form $propto log^a(1+x)log^b(1-x)$(more precisely ${3choose k} (-1)^klog^{3-k}(1+x)log^k(1-x)$ for $k=0, 1, 2,3,$). If the power of the log is greater than $1$, use differentiation under the integral sign, using $frac{partial^k}{partial a^k} (1pm x)^a Big|_{a=0} = log^k(1pm x)$. With powers of log equal to $1$, expand the log into its Taylor series. You can also combine these methods if both types of powers appear in the integral.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 30 '18 at 21:37

























            answered Dec 30 '18 at 18:25









            ZacharyZachary

            2,3751214




            2,3751214












            • $begingroup$
              Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 18:56












            • $begingroup$
              @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:04










            • $begingroup$
              Never heard of it. Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:11










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
              $endgroup$
              – Zachary
              Dec 30 '18 at 21:38


















            • $begingroup$
              Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 18:56












            • $begingroup$
              @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
              $endgroup$
              – mrtaurho
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:04










            • $begingroup$
              Never heard of it. Thanks!
              $endgroup$
              – Zacky
              Dec 30 '18 at 19:11










            • $begingroup$
              Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
              $endgroup$
              – Zachary
              Dec 30 '18 at 21:38
















            $begingroup$
            Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
            $endgroup$
            – Zacky
            Dec 30 '18 at 18:56






            $begingroup$
            Hi! What is the meaning of that $3/4$ infinity sign?
            $endgroup$
            – Zacky
            Dec 30 '18 at 18:56














            $begingroup$
            @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
            $endgroup$
            – mrtaurho
            Dec 30 '18 at 19:04




            $begingroup$
            @Zacky $propto$ stands for "proportional to".
            $endgroup$
            – mrtaurho
            Dec 30 '18 at 19:04












            $begingroup$
            Never heard of it. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Zacky
            Dec 30 '18 at 19:11




            $begingroup$
            Never heard of it. Thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Zacky
            Dec 30 '18 at 19:11












            $begingroup$
            Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
            $endgroup$
            – Zachary
            Dec 30 '18 at 21:38




            $begingroup$
            Yes, and I made it clearer that the constant of proportionality will be the binomial coefficient ${3choose k}$ for $k=0, 1, 2, 3$.
            $endgroup$
            – Zachary
            Dec 30 '18 at 21:38











            -2












            $begingroup$

            According to Maple,
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}; dx = frac{pi^4}{64} $$
            and
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^5}{x}; dx = frac{pi^6}{128} $$



            In fact, it seems $int_0^1 dfrac{text{arctanh}(x)^k}{x}; dx$ is a rational number times $zeta(k+1)$ for each positive integer $k$, with denominator a power of $2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 4




              $begingroup$
              What does Maple do to get these results?
              $endgroup$
              – Oscar Lanzi
              Dec 30 '18 at 17:54
















            -2












            $begingroup$

            According to Maple,
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}; dx = frac{pi^4}{64} $$
            and
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^5}{x}; dx = frac{pi^6}{128} $$



            In fact, it seems $int_0^1 dfrac{text{arctanh}(x)^k}{x}; dx$ is a rational number times $zeta(k+1)$ for each positive integer $k$, with denominator a power of $2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 4




              $begingroup$
              What does Maple do to get these results?
              $endgroup$
              – Oscar Lanzi
              Dec 30 '18 at 17:54














            -2












            -2








            -2





            $begingroup$

            According to Maple,
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}; dx = frac{pi^4}{64} $$
            and
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^5}{x}; dx = frac{pi^6}{128} $$



            In fact, it seems $int_0^1 dfrac{text{arctanh}(x)^k}{x}; dx$ is a rational number times $zeta(k+1)$ for each positive integer $k$, with denominator a power of $2$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            According to Maple,
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^3}{x}; dx = frac{pi^4}{64} $$
            and
            $$ int_0^1 frac{text{arctanh}(x)^5}{x}; dx = frac{pi^6}{128} $$



            In fact, it seems $int_0^1 dfrac{text{arctanh}(x)^k}{x}; dx$ is a rational number times $zeta(k+1)$ for each positive integer $k$, with denominator a power of $2$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














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            edited Dec 30 '18 at 18:45

























            answered Dec 30 '18 at 17:30









            Robert IsraelRobert Israel

            329k23217470




            329k23217470








            • 4




              $begingroup$
              What does Maple do to get these results?
              $endgroup$
              – Oscar Lanzi
              Dec 30 '18 at 17:54














            • 4




              $begingroup$
              What does Maple do to get these results?
              $endgroup$
              – Oscar Lanzi
              Dec 30 '18 at 17:54








            4




            4




            $begingroup$
            What does Maple do to get these results?
            $endgroup$
            – Oscar Lanzi
            Dec 30 '18 at 17:54




            $begingroup$
            What does Maple do to get these results?
            $endgroup$
            – Oscar Lanzi
            Dec 30 '18 at 17:54


















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