Does there exist any probability density function ‎$‎f:‎mathbb{R}to‎mathbb{R}‎$ ‎which is not...












4












$begingroup$


Let‎ ‎$‎‎f:‎mathbb{R}to‎mathbb{R}‎$ be a probability density function. Can ‎the following be happened for ‎$‎‎f$?



(1) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on ‎an ‎(some) ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.



‎(2) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.‎‎‎

I know that ‎if $‎f‎$ ‎is a‎ ‎‎probability density function then



(1) ‎$‎‎f(x)‎geq‎0 ‎quad‎text{for all} ; x$,



(2) ‎$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=1$.



but ‎here ‎we ‎have‎ Lebesgue integral not Riemann integral. Moreover if ‎$‎‎f$ ‎wants ‎to ‎be‎ Riemann integrable on the whole $mathbb{R}‎$, it must hold in the following conditions



‎‎(a) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎$mathbb{R},‎$



(b) the following integral is convergent‎



$$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=‎‎int_{-‎infty‎}^{0}f(x),dx+int_{0‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx.$$



According the mentioned things, the most pdf are ‎ Riemann integrable, and I could not find any example as I asked. Would anyone help me to find that. thanks a lot.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Take $Xsim U[0,1]$. Then $g=1-1_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a version of $f_X$...
    $endgroup$
    – d.k.o.
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:37
















4












$begingroup$


Let‎ ‎$‎‎f:‎mathbb{R}to‎mathbb{R}‎$ be a probability density function. Can ‎the following be happened for ‎$‎‎f$?



(1) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on ‎an ‎(some) ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.



‎(2) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.‎‎‎

I know that ‎if $‎f‎$ ‎is a‎ ‎‎probability density function then



(1) ‎$‎‎f(x)‎geq‎0 ‎quad‎text{for all} ; x$,



(2) ‎$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=1$.



but ‎here ‎we ‎have‎ Lebesgue integral not Riemann integral. Moreover if ‎$‎‎f$ ‎wants ‎to ‎be‎ Riemann integrable on the whole $mathbb{R}‎$, it must hold in the following conditions



‎‎(a) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎$mathbb{R},‎$



(b) the following integral is convergent‎



$$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=‎‎int_{-‎infty‎}^{0}f(x),dx+int_{0‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx.$$



According the mentioned things, the most pdf are ‎ Riemann integrable, and I could not find any example as I asked. Would anyone help me to find that. thanks a lot.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Take $Xsim U[0,1]$. Then $g=1-1_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a version of $f_X$...
    $endgroup$
    – d.k.o.
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:37














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


Let‎ ‎$‎‎f:‎mathbb{R}to‎mathbb{R}‎$ be a probability density function. Can ‎the following be happened for ‎$‎‎f$?



(1) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on ‎an ‎(some) ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.



‎(2) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.‎‎‎

I know that ‎if $‎f‎$ ‎is a‎ ‎‎probability density function then



(1) ‎$‎‎f(x)‎geq‎0 ‎quad‎text{for all} ; x$,



(2) ‎$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=1$.



but ‎here ‎we ‎have‎ Lebesgue integral not Riemann integral. Moreover if ‎$‎‎f$ ‎wants ‎to ‎be‎ Riemann integrable on the whole $mathbb{R}‎$, it must hold in the following conditions



‎‎(a) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎$mathbb{R},‎$



(b) the following integral is convergent‎



$$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=‎‎int_{-‎infty‎}^{0}f(x),dx+int_{0‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx.$$



According the mentioned things, the most pdf are ‎ Riemann integrable, and I could not find any example as I asked. Would anyone help me to find that. thanks a lot.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let‎ ‎$‎‎f:‎mathbb{R}to‎mathbb{R}‎$ be a probability density function. Can ‎the following be happened for ‎$‎‎f$?



(1) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on ‎an ‎(some) ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.



‎(2) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎not ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎‎$mathbb{R}‎$.‎‎‎

I know that ‎if $‎f‎$ ‎is a‎ ‎‎probability density function then



(1) ‎$‎‎f(x)‎geq‎0 ‎quad‎text{for all} ; x$,



(2) ‎$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=1$.



but ‎here ‎we ‎have‎ Lebesgue integral not Riemann integral. Moreover if ‎$‎‎f$ ‎wants ‎to ‎be‎ Riemann integrable on the whole $mathbb{R}‎$, it must hold in the following conditions



‎‎(a) ‎‎$‎‎f$ ‎is ‎integrable ‎on every closed ‎interval ‎of ‎$mathbb{R},‎$



(b) the following integral is convergent‎



$$int_{-‎infty‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx=‎‎int_{-‎infty‎}^{0}f(x),dx+int_{0‎}^{+infty}f(x),dx.$$



According the mentioned things, the most pdf are ‎ Riemann integrable, and I could not find any example as I asked. Would anyone help me to find that. thanks a lot.







probability integration probability-theory probability-distributions






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edited Dec 20 '18 at 7:39









Lord Shark the Unknown

105k1160133




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asked Dec 20 '18 at 7:25









soodehMehboodisoodehMehboodi

62138




62138












  • $begingroup$
    Take $Xsim U[0,1]$. Then $g=1-1_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a version of $f_X$...
    $endgroup$
    – d.k.o.
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:37


















  • $begingroup$
    Take $Xsim U[0,1]$. Then $g=1-1_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a version of $f_X$...
    $endgroup$
    – d.k.o.
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:37
















$begingroup$
Take $Xsim U[0,1]$. Then $g=1-1_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a version of $f_X$...
$endgroup$
– d.k.o.
Dec 20 '18 at 7:37




$begingroup$
Take $Xsim U[0,1]$. Then $g=1-1_{mathbb{Q}}$ is a version of $f_X$...
$endgroup$
– d.k.o.
Dec 20 '18 at 7:37










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

It is known that there exists a measurable set $E$ in $mathbb R$ such that $0<m(Ecap I) <m(I)$ for every open interval $I$. If $f=frac {I_E} {m(E)}$ then $f$ is a density function but it is not continuous at any point so it is not Riemann integrable on any interval.



For the construction of such a set $E$ see Creating a Lebesgue measurable set with peculiar property.



It is easy give simpler examples where $f$ is almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function but it is not itself Riemann integarble. In probability theory density function which are equal almost everywhere lead to the same distribution, so I tried to give a example which is not almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
    $endgroup$
    – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:44










  • $begingroup$
    This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:27










  • $begingroup$
    I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:51





















2












$begingroup$

$$
f(x) = begin{cases}
0 &; xinBbb Q cap[0,1] \
1 &; xinBbb Q^c cap[0,1]
end{cases}
$$

is a probability density function that is not Riemann integrable.



If you want a density function that is not Riemann integrable on any interval in $Bbb R$ then you can take $f$ to be the (normalized) Gaussian distribution and then $f+mathbf 1_{Bbb Q}$ is the desired probability density function with the properties you want.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    It is known that there exists a measurable set $E$ in $mathbb R$ such that $0<m(Ecap I) <m(I)$ for every open interval $I$. If $f=frac {I_E} {m(E)}$ then $f$ is a density function but it is not continuous at any point so it is not Riemann integrable on any interval.



    For the construction of such a set $E$ see Creating a Lebesgue measurable set with peculiar property.



    It is easy give simpler examples where $f$ is almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function but it is not itself Riemann integarble. In probability theory density function which are equal almost everywhere lead to the same distribution, so I tried to give a example which is not almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
      $endgroup$
      – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
      Dec 20 '18 at 7:44










    • $begingroup$
      This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
      $endgroup$
      – BigbearZzz
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:27










    • $begingroup$
      I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:51


















    5












    $begingroup$

    It is known that there exists a measurable set $E$ in $mathbb R$ such that $0<m(Ecap I) <m(I)$ for every open interval $I$. If $f=frac {I_E} {m(E)}$ then $f$ is a density function but it is not continuous at any point so it is not Riemann integrable on any interval.



    For the construction of such a set $E$ see Creating a Lebesgue measurable set with peculiar property.



    It is easy give simpler examples where $f$ is almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function but it is not itself Riemann integarble. In probability theory density function which are equal almost everywhere lead to the same distribution, so I tried to give a example which is not almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
      $endgroup$
      – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
      Dec 20 '18 at 7:44










    • $begingroup$
      This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
      $endgroup$
      – BigbearZzz
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:27










    • $begingroup$
      I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:51
















    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    It is known that there exists a measurable set $E$ in $mathbb R$ such that $0<m(Ecap I) <m(I)$ for every open interval $I$. If $f=frac {I_E} {m(E)}$ then $f$ is a density function but it is not continuous at any point so it is not Riemann integrable on any interval.



    For the construction of such a set $E$ see Creating a Lebesgue measurable set with peculiar property.



    It is easy give simpler examples where $f$ is almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function but it is not itself Riemann integarble. In probability theory density function which are equal almost everywhere lead to the same distribution, so I tried to give a example which is not almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    It is known that there exists a measurable set $E$ in $mathbb R$ such that $0<m(Ecap I) <m(I)$ for every open interval $I$. If $f=frac {I_E} {m(E)}$ then $f$ is a density function but it is not continuous at any point so it is not Riemann integrable on any interval.



    For the construction of such a set $E$ see Creating a Lebesgue measurable set with peculiar property.



    It is easy give simpler examples where $f$ is almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function but it is not itself Riemann integarble. In probability theory density function which are equal almost everywhere lead to the same distribution, so I tried to give a example which is not almost everywhere equal to a Riemann integrable function.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 20 '18 at 8:50

























    answered Dec 20 '18 at 7:38









    Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

    64.1k42464




    64.1k42464












    • $begingroup$
      This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
      $endgroup$
      – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
      Dec 20 '18 at 7:44










    • $begingroup$
      This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
      $endgroup$
      – BigbearZzz
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:27










    • $begingroup$
      I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:51




















    • $begingroup$
      This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
      $endgroup$
      – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
      Dec 20 '18 at 7:44










    • $begingroup$
      This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
      $endgroup$
      – BigbearZzz
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:27










    • $begingroup$
      I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Dec 20 '18 at 8:51


















    $begingroup$
    This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
    $endgroup$
    – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:44




    $begingroup$
    This is very nice since, also, $f$ is not a.e. equal to a Riemann integrable function.
    $endgroup$
    – Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
    Dec 20 '18 at 7:44












    $begingroup$
    This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:27




    $begingroup$
    This is a very interesting example. Is the existence of such a set $E$ easy to prove?
    $endgroup$
    – BigbearZzz
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:27












    $begingroup$
    I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:51






    $begingroup$
    I have added a reference for that construction. @BigbearZzz
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 20 '18 at 8:51













    2












    $begingroup$

    $$
    f(x) = begin{cases}
    0 &; xinBbb Q cap[0,1] \
    1 &; xinBbb Q^c cap[0,1]
    end{cases}
    $$

    is a probability density function that is not Riemann integrable.



    If you want a density function that is not Riemann integrable on any interval in $Bbb R$ then you can take $f$ to be the (normalized) Gaussian distribution and then $f+mathbf 1_{Bbb Q}$ is the desired probability density function with the properties you want.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      $$
      f(x) = begin{cases}
      0 &; xinBbb Q cap[0,1] \
      1 &; xinBbb Q^c cap[0,1]
      end{cases}
      $$

      is a probability density function that is not Riemann integrable.



      If you want a density function that is not Riemann integrable on any interval in $Bbb R$ then you can take $f$ to be the (normalized) Gaussian distribution and then $f+mathbf 1_{Bbb Q}$ is the desired probability density function with the properties you want.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        $$
        f(x) = begin{cases}
        0 &; xinBbb Q cap[0,1] \
        1 &; xinBbb Q^c cap[0,1]
        end{cases}
        $$

        is a probability density function that is not Riemann integrable.



        If you want a density function that is not Riemann integrable on any interval in $Bbb R$ then you can take $f$ to be the (normalized) Gaussian distribution and then $f+mathbf 1_{Bbb Q}$ is the desired probability density function with the properties you want.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $$
        f(x) = begin{cases}
        0 &; xinBbb Q cap[0,1] \
        1 &; xinBbb Q^c cap[0,1]
        end{cases}
        $$

        is a probability density function that is not Riemann integrable.



        If you want a density function that is not Riemann integrable on any interval in $Bbb R$ then you can take $f$ to be the (normalized) Gaussian distribution and then $f+mathbf 1_{Bbb Q}$ is the desired probability density function with the properties you want.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 20 '18 at 7:40









        BigbearZzzBigbearZzz

        8,88821652




        8,88821652






























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