Is every normable topological vector space “inner productable”?












3












$begingroup$


Not every norm on a vector space is induced by an inner product on that vector space. But suppose hat $X$ is a topological vector space that is normable, i.e. its topology is induced by some norm on the vector space. Then my question is, does that imply that $X$ is "inner product-able", i.e. that its topology is induced by some inner product on the vector space?



If not, then what is an example of a topological vector space which is normable but not "inner product-able"? And what properties must a topological vector space satisfy to be "inner product-able"?










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    3












    $begingroup$


    Not every norm on a vector space is induced by an inner product on that vector space. But suppose hat $X$ is a topological vector space that is normable, i.e. its topology is induced by some norm on the vector space. Then my question is, does that imply that $X$ is "inner product-able", i.e. that its topology is induced by some inner product on the vector space?



    If not, then what is an example of a topological vector space which is normable but not "inner product-able"? And what properties must a topological vector space satisfy to be "inner product-able"?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Not every norm on a vector space is induced by an inner product on that vector space. But suppose hat $X$ is a topological vector space that is normable, i.e. its topology is induced by some norm on the vector space. Then my question is, does that imply that $X$ is "inner product-able", i.e. that its topology is induced by some inner product on the vector space?



      If not, then what is an example of a topological vector space which is normable but not "inner product-able"? And what properties must a topological vector space satisfy to be "inner product-able"?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Not every norm on a vector space is induced by an inner product on that vector space. But suppose hat $X$ is a topological vector space that is normable, i.e. its topology is induced by some norm on the vector space. Then my question is, does that imply that $X$ is "inner product-able", i.e. that its topology is induced by some inner product on the vector space?



      If not, then what is an example of a topological vector space which is normable but not "inner product-able"? And what properties must a topological vector space satisfy to be "inner product-able"?







      general-topology examples-counterexamples normed-spaces inner-product-space topological-vector-spaces






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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 18 '18 at 7:11









      Keshav SrinivasanKeshav Srinivasan

      2,31721445




      2,31721445






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          $C[0,1]$ is normable with the sup norm. If the topology of $C[0,1]$ is induced by an inner product then the norm corresponding to the inner product is equivalent to the sup norm because these norms induce the
          same topology. But there is no norm equivalent to the sup norm which is given by an inner product. [ The existence of such a norm would make $C[0,1]$ reflexive].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:32






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:34












          • $begingroup$
            OK thanks for clarifying.
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:39










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 16:00











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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

          oldest

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          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          $C[0,1]$ is normable with the sup norm. If the topology of $C[0,1]$ is induced by an inner product then the norm corresponding to the inner product is equivalent to the sup norm because these norms induce the
          same topology. But there is no norm equivalent to the sup norm which is given by an inner product. [ The existence of such a norm would make $C[0,1]$ reflexive].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:32






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:34












          • $begingroup$
            OK thanks for clarifying.
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:39










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 16:00
















          3












          $begingroup$

          $C[0,1]$ is normable with the sup norm. If the topology of $C[0,1]$ is induced by an inner product then the norm corresponding to the inner product is equivalent to the sup norm because these norms induce the
          same topology. But there is no norm equivalent to the sup norm which is given by an inner product. [ The existence of such a norm would make $C[0,1]$ reflexive].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:32






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:34












          • $begingroup$
            OK thanks for clarifying.
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:39










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 16:00














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          $C[0,1]$ is normable with the sup norm. If the topology of $C[0,1]$ is induced by an inner product then the norm corresponding to the inner product is equivalent to the sup norm because these norms induce the
          same topology. But there is no norm equivalent to the sup norm which is given by an inner product. [ The existence of such a norm would make $C[0,1]$ reflexive].






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $C[0,1]$ is normable with the sup norm. If the topology of $C[0,1]$ is induced by an inner product then the norm corresponding to the inner product is equivalent to the sup norm because these norms induce the
          same topology. But there is no norm equivalent to the sup norm which is given by an inner product. [ The existence of such a norm would make $C[0,1]$ reflexive].







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 18 '18 at 7:26









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          62.9k42362




          62.9k42362












          • $begingroup$
            Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:32






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:34












          • $begingroup$
            OK thanks for clarifying.
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:39










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 16:00


















          • $begingroup$
            Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:32






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:34












          • $begingroup$
            OK thanks for clarifying.
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 7:39










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
            $endgroup$
            – Keshav Srinivasan
            Dec 18 '18 at 16:00
















          $begingroup$
          Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
          $endgroup$
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          Dec 18 '18 at 7:32




          $begingroup$
          Can you elaborate on the proof that no norm equivalent to the sup norm is induced by an inner product?
          $endgroup$
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          Dec 18 '18 at 7:32




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Dec 18 '18 at 7:34






          $begingroup$
          The dual space and thee second dual are same for equivalent norms. Every Hilbert space is reflexive but $C[0,1]$ is not reflexive.
          $endgroup$
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Dec 18 '18 at 7:34














          $begingroup$
          OK thanks for clarifying.
          $endgroup$
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          Dec 18 '18 at 7:39




          $begingroup$
          OK thanks for clarifying.
          $endgroup$
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          Dec 18 '18 at 7:39












          $begingroup$
          I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
          $endgroup$
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          Dec 18 '18 at 16:00




          $begingroup$
          I just posted a follow-up question: math.stackexchange.com/q/3045323/71829
          $endgroup$
          – Keshav Srinivasan
          Dec 18 '18 at 16:00


















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