How this definition of functional integral leads to the Wiener measure?












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In Quantum Mechanics and Quantum Field Theory texts, one encounters a definition of functional integral in terms of a limiting process associated to a time-slicing procedure. This is the way I've found best to summarize what is done in more mathematically precise terms:




Definition: Let $[a,b]subset mathbb{R}$ and let a partition $P$ of $[a,b]$ be given: $$a=t_0<t_1<cdots<t_{N-1}<t_N=b.$$ Let $x_0,dots, x_{N}in mathbb{R}$. We call the piecewise smooth path $x : [a,b]to mathbb{R}$ given by $$x(t)=x_k+frac{x_{k+1}-x_k}{t_{k+1}-t_k}(t-t_k),quad tin [t_{k},t_{k+1}],quad kin {0,dots, N}$$
a linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



Definition: Let $C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let further $mathfrak{F}: C_p^infty([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be a given functional acting on such paths.



Let further $P$ be a partition of $[a,b]$ into $N$ subintervals. We define the functional $mathfrak{F}_P : mathbb{R}^{N+1}to mathbb{C}$ with respect to this partition to be



$$mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots,x_N)=mathfrak{F}[x_P(t)]$$



where $x_P(t)$ is the linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



Definition: Let $C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let a functional $mathfrak{F}: C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be given.



We say that $mathfrak{F}$ is functionally integrable if the limit:



$$lim_{|P|to 0}int_{mathbb{R}^{N+1}} mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots, x_N) dx_0cdots dx_{N}$$



exists, where $|P|$ is the mesh of the partition, given by $$|P|=max{t_{k+1}-t_k | kin {0,dots, N}}.$$ In that case we call such limit the functional integral of $mathfrak{F}$ and denote it by



$$int mathcal{D}x(t) mathfrak{F}[x(t)].$$




So again, this process defines the symbol



$$int_{C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})}mathfrak{F}[x(t)]mathcal{D}x(t)$$



for "functionally integrable" functionals. This is not at first a Lebesgue integral with respect to some measure on the space of paths.



I've heard a few times though, that this integral so defined, does indeed come from a measure and that it is the Wiener measure. So if I got it right, in a sense, one can show that this integral actually defines the Wiener measure and is the corresponding Lebesgue integral.



How can that be shown? How this definition of functional integral yields the Wiener measure and how this integral defined as a limit is the Lebesgue integral with respect to said measure?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    In Quantum Mechanics and Quantum Field Theory texts, one encounters a definition of functional integral in terms of a limiting process associated to a time-slicing procedure. This is the way I've found best to summarize what is done in more mathematically precise terms:




    Definition: Let $[a,b]subset mathbb{R}$ and let a partition $P$ of $[a,b]$ be given: $$a=t_0<t_1<cdots<t_{N-1}<t_N=b.$$ Let $x_0,dots, x_{N}in mathbb{R}$. We call the piecewise smooth path $x : [a,b]to mathbb{R}$ given by $$x(t)=x_k+frac{x_{k+1}-x_k}{t_{k+1}-t_k}(t-t_k),quad tin [t_{k},t_{k+1}],quad kin {0,dots, N}$$
    a linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



    Definition: Let $C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let further $mathfrak{F}: C_p^infty([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be a given functional acting on such paths.



    Let further $P$ be a partition of $[a,b]$ into $N$ subintervals. We define the functional $mathfrak{F}_P : mathbb{R}^{N+1}to mathbb{C}$ with respect to this partition to be



    $$mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots,x_N)=mathfrak{F}[x_P(t)]$$



    where $x_P(t)$ is the linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



    Definition: Let $C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let a functional $mathfrak{F}: C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be given.



    We say that $mathfrak{F}$ is functionally integrable if the limit:



    $$lim_{|P|to 0}int_{mathbb{R}^{N+1}} mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots, x_N) dx_0cdots dx_{N}$$



    exists, where $|P|$ is the mesh of the partition, given by $$|P|=max{t_{k+1}-t_k | kin {0,dots, N}}.$$ In that case we call such limit the functional integral of $mathfrak{F}$ and denote it by



    $$int mathcal{D}x(t) mathfrak{F}[x(t)].$$




    So again, this process defines the symbol



    $$int_{C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})}mathfrak{F}[x(t)]mathcal{D}x(t)$$



    for "functionally integrable" functionals. This is not at first a Lebesgue integral with respect to some measure on the space of paths.



    I've heard a few times though, that this integral so defined, does indeed come from a measure and that it is the Wiener measure. So if I got it right, in a sense, one can show that this integral actually defines the Wiener measure and is the corresponding Lebesgue integral.



    How can that be shown? How this definition of functional integral yields the Wiener measure and how this integral defined as a limit is the Lebesgue integral with respect to said measure?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      In Quantum Mechanics and Quantum Field Theory texts, one encounters a definition of functional integral in terms of a limiting process associated to a time-slicing procedure. This is the way I've found best to summarize what is done in more mathematically precise terms:




      Definition: Let $[a,b]subset mathbb{R}$ and let a partition $P$ of $[a,b]$ be given: $$a=t_0<t_1<cdots<t_{N-1}<t_N=b.$$ Let $x_0,dots, x_{N}in mathbb{R}$. We call the piecewise smooth path $x : [a,b]to mathbb{R}$ given by $$x(t)=x_k+frac{x_{k+1}-x_k}{t_{k+1}-t_k}(t-t_k),quad tin [t_{k},t_{k+1}],quad kin {0,dots, N}$$
      a linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



      Definition: Let $C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let further $mathfrak{F}: C_p^infty([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be a given functional acting on such paths.



      Let further $P$ be a partition of $[a,b]$ into $N$ subintervals. We define the functional $mathfrak{F}_P : mathbb{R}^{N+1}to mathbb{C}$ with respect to this partition to be



      $$mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots,x_N)=mathfrak{F}[x_P(t)]$$



      where $x_P(t)$ is the linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



      Definition: Let $C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let a functional $mathfrak{F}: C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be given.



      We say that $mathfrak{F}$ is functionally integrable if the limit:



      $$lim_{|P|to 0}int_{mathbb{R}^{N+1}} mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots, x_N) dx_0cdots dx_{N}$$



      exists, where $|P|$ is the mesh of the partition, given by $$|P|=max{t_{k+1}-t_k | kin {0,dots, N}}.$$ In that case we call such limit the functional integral of $mathfrak{F}$ and denote it by



      $$int mathcal{D}x(t) mathfrak{F}[x(t)].$$




      So again, this process defines the symbol



      $$int_{C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})}mathfrak{F}[x(t)]mathcal{D}x(t)$$



      for "functionally integrable" functionals. This is not at first a Lebesgue integral with respect to some measure on the space of paths.



      I've heard a few times though, that this integral so defined, does indeed come from a measure and that it is the Wiener measure. So if I got it right, in a sense, one can show that this integral actually defines the Wiener measure and is the corresponding Lebesgue integral.



      How can that be shown? How this definition of functional integral yields the Wiener measure and how this integral defined as a limit is the Lebesgue integral with respect to said measure?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      In Quantum Mechanics and Quantum Field Theory texts, one encounters a definition of functional integral in terms of a limiting process associated to a time-slicing procedure. This is the way I've found best to summarize what is done in more mathematically precise terms:




      Definition: Let $[a,b]subset mathbb{R}$ and let a partition $P$ of $[a,b]$ be given: $$a=t_0<t_1<cdots<t_{N-1}<t_N=b.$$ Let $x_0,dots, x_{N}in mathbb{R}$. We call the piecewise smooth path $x : [a,b]to mathbb{R}$ given by $$x(t)=x_k+frac{x_{k+1}-x_k}{t_{k+1}-t_k}(t-t_k),quad tin [t_{k},t_{k+1}],quad kin {0,dots, N}$$
      a linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



      Definition: Let $C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let further $mathfrak{F}: C_p^infty([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be a given functional acting on such paths.



      Let further $P$ be a partition of $[a,b]$ into $N$ subintervals. We define the functional $mathfrak{F}_P : mathbb{R}^{N+1}to mathbb{C}$ with respect to this partition to be



      $$mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots,x_N)=mathfrak{F}[x_P(t)]$$



      where $x_P(t)$ is the linear interpolation of the points $x_0,dots, x_N$.



      Definition: Let $C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})$ be the space of piecewise smooth paths defined in $[a,b]$. Let a functional $mathfrak{F}: C^infty_p([a,b];mathbb{R})to mathbb{C}$ be given.



      We say that $mathfrak{F}$ is functionally integrable if the limit:



      $$lim_{|P|to 0}int_{mathbb{R}^{N+1}} mathfrak{F}_P(x_0,dots, x_N) dx_0cdots dx_{N}$$



      exists, where $|P|$ is the mesh of the partition, given by $$|P|=max{t_{k+1}-t_k | kin {0,dots, N}}.$$ In that case we call such limit the functional integral of $mathfrak{F}$ and denote it by



      $$int mathcal{D}x(t) mathfrak{F}[x(t)].$$




      So again, this process defines the symbol



      $$int_{C_p^{infty}([a,b];mathbb{R})}mathfrak{F}[x(t)]mathcal{D}x(t)$$



      for "functionally integrable" functionals. This is not at first a Lebesgue integral with respect to some measure on the space of paths.



      I've heard a few times though, that this integral so defined, does indeed come from a measure and that it is the Wiener measure. So if I got it right, in a sense, one can show that this integral actually defines the Wiener measure and is the corresponding Lebesgue integral.



      How can that be shown? How this definition of functional integral yields the Wiener measure and how this integral defined as a limit is the Lebesgue integral with respect to said measure?







      integration functional-analysis measure-theory mathematical-physics quantum-mechanics






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Dec 12 '18 at 11:43









      user1620696user1620696

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