Computation of partial fraction decomposition












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Suppose the polynomial $Q(x)$ be $$Q(x)=(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2) cdots (x-alpha_{n+1})$$, where $alpha_1, alpha_2, cdots , alpha_{n+1}$ are distinct real numbers and $n in mathbb{N}$. Show that if $P(x)$ is a polynomial with degree less than $n+1$ then
$$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{P(alpha_k)}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)},$$
where $Q'(x)$ is the derivative of the polynomial $Q(x)$.




The generalisation of partial fractions decomposition is strongly related to Lagrange polynomial, should I start proving Lagrange polynomial before the statement above? Or I should have another approach to prove this?










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    0












    $begingroup$



    Suppose the polynomial $Q(x)$ be $$Q(x)=(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2) cdots (x-alpha_{n+1})$$, where $alpha_1, alpha_2, cdots , alpha_{n+1}$ are distinct real numbers and $n in mathbb{N}$. Show that if $P(x)$ is a polynomial with degree less than $n+1$ then
    $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{P(alpha_k)}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)},$$
    where $Q'(x)$ is the derivative of the polynomial $Q(x)$.




    The generalisation of partial fractions decomposition is strongly related to Lagrange polynomial, should I start proving Lagrange polynomial before the statement above? Or I should have another approach to prove this?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      Suppose the polynomial $Q(x)$ be $$Q(x)=(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2) cdots (x-alpha_{n+1})$$, where $alpha_1, alpha_2, cdots , alpha_{n+1}$ are distinct real numbers and $n in mathbb{N}$. Show that if $P(x)$ is a polynomial with degree less than $n+1$ then
      $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{P(alpha_k)}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)},$$
      where $Q'(x)$ is the derivative of the polynomial $Q(x)$.




      The generalisation of partial fractions decomposition is strongly related to Lagrange polynomial, should I start proving Lagrange polynomial before the statement above? Or I should have another approach to prove this?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Suppose the polynomial $Q(x)$ be $$Q(x)=(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2) cdots (x-alpha_{n+1})$$, where $alpha_1, alpha_2, cdots , alpha_{n+1}$ are distinct real numbers and $n in mathbb{N}$. Show that if $P(x)$ is a polynomial with degree less than $n+1$ then
      $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{P(alpha_k)}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)},$$
      where $Q'(x)$ is the derivative of the polynomial $Q(x)$.




      The generalisation of partial fractions decomposition is strongly related to Lagrange polynomial, should I start proving Lagrange polynomial before the statement above? Or I should have another approach to prove this?







      real-analysis derivatives






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      edited Dec 13 '18 at 14:47









      David C. Ullrich

      60.9k43994




      60.9k43994










      asked Dec 13 '18 at 14:09









      weilam06weilam06

      9511




      9511






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Two polynomials of degree $n$ are equal if they have the same values at $n+1$ distinct points. Multiply RHS and LHS of your equation by $Q(x)$ and compute the obtained LHS and RHS at any $alpha_j$. If LHS($alpha_j$)=RHS($alpha_j$) are the same for all $j=1,...,n+1$ then the equality is true. Do not forget that
          $$
          (prod_{j=1}^{n+1}(x-alpha_j))'=sum_{j=1}^{n+1}prod_{ineq j}(x-alpha_i).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:55










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
            $endgroup$
            – AAK
            Dec 13 '18 at 18:10












          • $begingroup$
            Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 8:36



















          0












          $begingroup$

          hint



          The decomposition gives



          $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum_{k=1}^{n+1}frac{A_k}{(x-alpha_k)}$$



          with



          $$A_k=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{P(x)(x-alpha_k)}{Q(x)}$$
          and
          $$Q'(alpha_k)=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{Q(x)-0}{x-alpha_k}.$$



          You can take it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 2:46











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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          Two polynomials of degree $n$ are equal if they have the same values at $n+1$ distinct points. Multiply RHS and LHS of your equation by $Q(x)$ and compute the obtained LHS and RHS at any $alpha_j$. If LHS($alpha_j$)=RHS($alpha_j$) are the same for all $j=1,...,n+1$ then the equality is true. Do not forget that
          $$
          (prod_{j=1}^{n+1}(x-alpha_j))'=sum_{j=1}^{n+1}prod_{ineq j}(x-alpha_i).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:55










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
            $endgroup$
            – AAK
            Dec 13 '18 at 18:10












          • $begingroup$
            Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 8:36
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Two polynomials of degree $n$ are equal if they have the same values at $n+1$ distinct points. Multiply RHS and LHS of your equation by $Q(x)$ and compute the obtained LHS and RHS at any $alpha_j$. If LHS($alpha_j$)=RHS($alpha_j$) are the same for all $j=1,...,n+1$ then the equality is true. Do not forget that
          $$
          (prod_{j=1}^{n+1}(x-alpha_j))'=sum_{j=1}^{n+1}prod_{ineq j}(x-alpha_i).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:55










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
            $endgroup$
            – AAK
            Dec 13 '18 at 18:10












          • $begingroup$
            Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 8:36














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Two polynomials of degree $n$ are equal if they have the same values at $n+1$ distinct points. Multiply RHS and LHS of your equation by $Q(x)$ and compute the obtained LHS and RHS at any $alpha_j$. If LHS($alpha_j$)=RHS($alpha_j$) are the same for all $j=1,...,n+1$ then the equality is true. Do not forget that
          $$
          (prod_{j=1}^{n+1}(x-alpha_j))'=sum_{j=1}^{n+1}prod_{ineq j}(x-alpha_i).
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Two polynomials of degree $n$ are equal if they have the same values at $n+1$ distinct points. Multiply RHS and LHS of your equation by $Q(x)$ and compute the obtained LHS and RHS at any $alpha_j$. If LHS($alpha_j$)=RHS($alpha_j$) are the same for all $j=1,...,n+1$ then the equality is true. Do not forget that
          $$
          (prod_{j=1}^{n+1}(x-alpha_j))'=sum_{j=1}^{n+1}prod_{ineq j}(x-alpha_i).
          $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 13 '18 at 14:30









          AAKAAK

          365




          365












          • $begingroup$
            So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:55










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
            $endgroup$
            – AAK
            Dec 13 '18 at 18:10












          • $begingroup$
            Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 8:36


















          • $begingroup$
            So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:55










          • $begingroup$
            Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
            $endgroup$
            – AAK
            Dec 13 '18 at 18:10












          • $begingroup$
            Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 8:36
















          $begingroup$
          So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
          $endgroup$
          – weilam06
          Dec 13 '18 at 14:55




          $begingroup$
          So I have to make $r(x)=P(x)-sum^{n+1}_{k=1}frac{alpha_k}{Q'(alpha_k)(x-alpha_k)} cdot Q(x)=0$ holds true for all $alpha_k$, where $k=1,2, cdots, n+1$. Prove that $r(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n+1$ roots, concludes that $r(x)$ must be a zero polynomial, i.e. $r(x)=0$, so the conclusion follows?
          $endgroup$
          – weilam06
          Dec 13 '18 at 14:55












          $begingroup$
          Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
          $endgroup$
          – AAK
          Dec 13 '18 at 18:10






          $begingroup$
          Yes! If a polynomial of degree $n$ has at least $n+1$ roots then it is $0$. Just a remark: put $P(alpha_k)$ instead of $alpha_k$ in the numerator in your comment.
          $endgroup$
          – AAK
          Dec 13 '18 at 18:10














          $begingroup$
          Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – weilam06
          Dec 14 '18 at 8:36




          $begingroup$
          Oh okay, I have mistyped it. Thanks.
          $endgroup$
          – weilam06
          Dec 14 '18 at 8:36











          0












          $begingroup$

          hint



          The decomposition gives



          $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum_{k=1}^{n+1}frac{A_k}{(x-alpha_k)}$$



          with



          $$A_k=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{P(x)(x-alpha_k)}{Q(x)}$$
          and
          $$Q'(alpha_k)=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{Q(x)-0}{x-alpha_k}.$$



          You can take it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 2:46
















          0












          $begingroup$

          hint



          The decomposition gives



          $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum_{k=1}^{n+1}frac{A_k}{(x-alpha_k)}$$



          with



          $$A_k=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{P(x)(x-alpha_k)}{Q(x)}$$
          and
          $$Q'(alpha_k)=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{Q(x)-0}{x-alpha_k}.$$



          You can take it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 2:46














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          hint



          The decomposition gives



          $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum_{k=1}^{n+1}frac{A_k}{(x-alpha_k)}$$



          with



          $$A_k=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{P(x)(x-alpha_k)}{Q(x)}$$
          and
          $$Q'(alpha_k)=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{Q(x)-0}{x-alpha_k}.$$



          You can take it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          hint



          The decomposition gives



          $$frac{P(x)}{Q(x)}=sum_{k=1}^{n+1}frac{A_k}{(x-alpha_k)}$$



          with



          $$A_k=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{P(x)(x-alpha_k)}{Q(x)}$$
          and
          $$Q'(alpha_k)=lim_{xtoalpha_k}frac{Q(x)-0}{x-alpha_k}.$$



          You can take it.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 13 '18 at 14:27









          hamam_Abdallahhamam_Abdallah

          38.1k21634




          38.1k21634












          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 2:46


















          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
            $endgroup$
            – weilam06
            Dec 14 '18 at 2:46
















          $begingroup$
          I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
          $endgroup$
          – weilam06
          Dec 14 '18 at 2:46




          $begingroup$
          I don't understand how to relate with MVT.
          $endgroup$
          – weilam06
          Dec 14 '18 at 2:46


















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