Best estimate for random values












5












$begingroup$


Due to work related issues I can't discuss the exact question I want to ask, but I thought of a silly little example that conveys the same idea.



Lets say the number of candy that comes in a package is a random variable with mean $mu$ and a standard deviation $s$, after about 2 months of data gathering we've got about 100000 measurements and a pretty good estimate of $mu$ and $s$.



Lets say that said candy comes in 5 flavours that are NOT identically distributed (we know the mean and standard deviation for each flavor, lets call them $mu_1$ through $mu_5$ and $s_1$ trough $s_5$).



Lets say that next month we will get a new batch (several packages) of candy from our supplier and we would like to estimate the amount of candy we will get for each flavour. Is there a better way than simply assuming that we'll get "around" the mean for each flavour taking into account that the amount of candy we'll get is around $mu$?



I have access to all the measurements made, so if anything is needed (higher order moments, other relevant data, etc.) I can compute it and update the question as needed.



Cheers and thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is "batch" synonymous with "package"? If so, the question would be considerably clearer if you used the same word again. If not, please clarify the difference.
    $endgroup$
    – joriki
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I forgot to add that a batch is several packages, I don't think it matters as we'll evaluate per "package"
    $endgroup$
    – Zegpi
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:52
















5












$begingroup$


Due to work related issues I can't discuss the exact question I want to ask, but I thought of a silly little example that conveys the same idea.



Lets say the number of candy that comes in a package is a random variable with mean $mu$ and a standard deviation $s$, after about 2 months of data gathering we've got about 100000 measurements and a pretty good estimate of $mu$ and $s$.



Lets say that said candy comes in 5 flavours that are NOT identically distributed (we know the mean and standard deviation for each flavor, lets call them $mu_1$ through $mu_5$ and $s_1$ trough $s_5$).



Lets say that next month we will get a new batch (several packages) of candy from our supplier and we would like to estimate the amount of candy we will get for each flavour. Is there a better way than simply assuming that we'll get "around" the mean for each flavour taking into account that the amount of candy we'll get is around $mu$?



I have access to all the measurements made, so if anything is needed (higher order moments, other relevant data, etc.) I can compute it and update the question as needed.



Cheers and thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is "batch" synonymous with "package"? If so, the question would be considerably clearer if you used the same word again. If not, please clarify the difference.
    $endgroup$
    – joriki
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I forgot to add that a batch is several packages, I don't think it matters as we'll evaluate per "package"
    $endgroup$
    – Zegpi
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:52














5












5








5





$begingroup$


Due to work related issues I can't discuss the exact question I want to ask, but I thought of a silly little example that conveys the same idea.



Lets say the number of candy that comes in a package is a random variable with mean $mu$ and a standard deviation $s$, after about 2 months of data gathering we've got about 100000 measurements and a pretty good estimate of $mu$ and $s$.



Lets say that said candy comes in 5 flavours that are NOT identically distributed (we know the mean and standard deviation for each flavor, lets call them $mu_1$ through $mu_5$ and $s_1$ trough $s_5$).



Lets say that next month we will get a new batch (several packages) of candy from our supplier and we would like to estimate the amount of candy we will get for each flavour. Is there a better way than simply assuming that we'll get "around" the mean for each flavour taking into account that the amount of candy we'll get is around $mu$?



I have access to all the measurements made, so if anything is needed (higher order moments, other relevant data, etc.) I can compute it and update the question as needed.



Cheers and thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Due to work related issues I can't discuss the exact question I want to ask, but I thought of a silly little example that conveys the same idea.



Lets say the number of candy that comes in a package is a random variable with mean $mu$ and a standard deviation $s$, after about 2 months of data gathering we've got about 100000 measurements and a pretty good estimate of $mu$ and $s$.



Lets say that said candy comes in 5 flavours that are NOT identically distributed (we know the mean and standard deviation for each flavor, lets call them $mu_1$ through $mu_5$ and $s_1$ trough $s_5$).



Lets say that next month we will get a new batch (several packages) of candy from our supplier and we would like to estimate the amount of candy we will get for each flavour. Is there a better way than simply assuming that we'll get "around" the mean for each flavour taking into account that the amount of candy we'll get is around $mu$?



I have access to all the measurements made, so if anything is needed (higher order moments, other relevant data, etc.) I can compute it and update the question as needed.



Cheers and thanks!







statistics random estimation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 2 '13 at 21:51







Zegpi

















asked Apr 2 '13 at 21:08









ZegpiZegpi

263




263












  • $begingroup$
    Is "batch" synonymous with "package"? If so, the question would be considerably clearer if you used the same word again. If not, please clarify the difference.
    $endgroup$
    – joriki
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I forgot to add that a batch is several packages, I don't think it matters as we'll evaluate per "package"
    $endgroup$
    – Zegpi
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:52


















  • $begingroup$
    Is "batch" synonymous with "package"? If so, the question would be considerably clearer if you used the same word again. If not, please clarify the difference.
    $endgroup$
    – joriki
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:34










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry, I forgot to add that a batch is several packages, I don't think it matters as we'll evaluate per "package"
    $endgroup$
    – Zegpi
    Apr 2 '13 at 21:52
















$begingroup$
Is "batch" synonymous with "package"? If so, the question would be considerably clearer if you used the same word again. If not, please clarify the difference.
$endgroup$
– joriki
Apr 2 '13 at 21:34




$begingroup$
Is "batch" synonymous with "package"? If so, the question would be considerably clearer if you used the same word again. If not, please clarify the difference.
$endgroup$
– joriki
Apr 2 '13 at 21:34












$begingroup$
I'm sorry, I forgot to add that a batch is several packages, I don't think it matters as we'll evaluate per "package"
$endgroup$
– Zegpi
Apr 2 '13 at 21:52




$begingroup$
I'm sorry, I forgot to add that a batch is several packages, I don't think it matters as we'll evaluate per "package"
$endgroup$
– Zegpi
Apr 2 '13 at 21:52










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

I find the question a bit unclear but since you have an estimate of the mean and standard deviation for a single package, assuming the candy in each package is independent why not use, $E(X_1+X_2)=E(X_1)+E(X_2)$ and $Var(X_1+X_2) = Var(X_1) + Var(X_2) + 2*cov(X_1,X_2)$ ?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
    $endgroup$
    – Zegpi
    Apr 2 '13 at 22:00










  • $begingroup$
    I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
    $endgroup$
    – MrOperator
    Apr 3 '13 at 10:14










  • $begingroup$
    That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
    $endgroup$
    – Zegpi
    Apr 3 '13 at 11:46



















0












$begingroup$

If the batches are independent, there is nothing you can do other than taking the mean, which is (probably) an unbiaised estimator. It is a common misconception that in random phenomena, the past influences the future and allows predictions (such as one million tails in a row have more chance to be followed by a head). This is false.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    It depends on your definition of "better."
    You need to define your risk function. If your risk function is MSE, you can do better than simply using the sample means. The idea is to use shrinkage, which as the name suggests means to shrink all your $mu_i$ estimates slightly towards 0. The amount of shrinkage should be proportional to the sample variance $s^2$ of your data (noisier data calls for more shrinkage) and inversely proportional to the number of data points $n$ that you collect. Note that the James-Stein estimator is only better for $m ge 3$ flavors. In general, some form of regularization is always wise in empirical problems.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      0












      $begingroup$

      I find the question a bit unclear but since you have an estimate of the mean and standard deviation for a single package, assuming the candy in each package is independent why not use, $E(X_1+X_2)=E(X_1)+E(X_2)$ and $Var(X_1+X_2) = Var(X_1) + Var(X_2) + 2*cov(X_1,X_2)$ ?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 2 '13 at 22:00










      • $begingroup$
        I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
        $endgroup$
        – MrOperator
        Apr 3 '13 at 10:14










      • $begingroup$
        That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 3 '13 at 11:46
















      0












      $begingroup$

      I find the question a bit unclear but since you have an estimate of the mean and standard deviation for a single package, assuming the candy in each package is independent why not use, $E(X_1+X_2)=E(X_1)+E(X_2)$ and $Var(X_1+X_2) = Var(X_1) + Var(X_2) + 2*cov(X_1,X_2)$ ?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 2 '13 at 22:00










      • $begingroup$
        I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
        $endgroup$
        – MrOperator
        Apr 3 '13 at 10:14










      • $begingroup$
        That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 3 '13 at 11:46














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$

      I find the question a bit unclear but since you have an estimate of the mean and standard deviation for a single package, assuming the candy in each package is independent why not use, $E(X_1+X_2)=E(X_1)+E(X_2)$ and $Var(X_1+X_2) = Var(X_1) + Var(X_2) + 2*cov(X_1,X_2)$ ?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      I find the question a bit unclear but since you have an estimate of the mean and standard deviation for a single package, assuming the candy in each package is independent why not use, $E(X_1+X_2)=E(X_1)+E(X_2)$ and $Var(X_1+X_2) = Var(X_1) + Var(X_2) + 2*cov(X_1,X_2)$ ?







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Apr 2 '13 at 21:47









      MrOperatorMrOperator

      1886




      1886












      • $begingroup$
        Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 2 '13 at 22:00










      • $begingroup$
        I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
        $endgroup$
        – MrOperator
        Apr 3 '13 at 10:14










      • $begingroup$
        That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 3 '13 at 11:46


















      • $begingroup$
        Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 2 '13 at 22:00










      • $begingroup$
        I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
        $endgroup$
        – MrOperator
        Apr 3 '13 at 10:14










      • $begingroup$
        That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
        $endgroup$
        – Zegpi
        Apr 3 '13 at 11:46
















      $begingroup$
      Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
      $endgroup$
      – Zegpi
      Apr 2 '13 at 22:00




      $begingroup$
      Since we want to get an estimate for each "flavour" we are now using $mu_1$ through $mu_5$. I would like to know if there is a better method to estimate how many of each "flavour" we'll get.
      $endgroup$
      – Zegpi
      Apr 2 '13 at 22:00












      $begingroup$
      I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
      $endgroup$
      – MrOperator
      Apr 3 '13 at 10:14




      $begingroup$
      I do no think that you can do beter then using the distirubtion of each flavour. If for example you would know that $sigma_1=sigma_2$ you could use a pooled variance estimator to get a better estimate $s_{pooled}$ for $sigma_1$ and $sigma_2$. The same reasoning holds for $mu$.
      $endgroup$
      – MrOperator
      Apr 3 '13 at 10:14












      $begingroup$
      That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
      $endgroup$
      – Zegpi
      Apr 3 '13 at 11:46




      $begingroup$
      That's what I thought, but I hoped someone could have a better idea.
      $endgroup$
      – Zegpi
      Apr 3 '13 at 11:46











      0












      $begingroup$

      If the batches are independent, there is nothing you can do other than taking the mean, which is (probably) an unbiaised estimator. It is a common misconception that in random phenomena, the past influences the future and allows predictions (such as one million tails in a row have more chance to be followed by a head). This is false.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        0












        $begingroup$

        If the batches are independent, there is nothing you can do other than taking the mean, which is (probably) an unbiaised estimator. It is a common misconception that in random phenomena, the past influences the future and allows predictions (such as one million tails in a row have more chance to be followed by a head). This is false.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          If the batches are independent, there is nothing you can do other than taking the mean, which is (probably) an unbiaised estimator. It is a common misconception that in random phenomena, the past influences the future and allows predictions (such as one million tails in a row have more chance to be followed by a head). This is false.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          If the batches are independent, there is nothing you can do other than taking the mean, which is (probably) an unbiaised estimator. It is a common misconception that in random phenomena, the past influences the future and allows predictions (such as one million tails in a row have more chance to be followed by a head). This is false.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 13 '18 at 20:18









          Yves DaoustYves Daoust

          128k674226




          128k674226























              0












              $begingroup$

              It depends on your definition of "better."
              You need to define your risk function. If your risk function is MSE, you can do better than simply using the sample means. The idea is to use shrinkage, which as the name suggests means to shrink all your $mu_i$ estimates slightly towards 0. The amount of shrinkage should be proportional to the sample variance $s^2$ of your data (noisier data calls for more shrinkage) and inversely proportional to the number of data points $n$ that you collect. Note that the James-Stein estimator is only better for $m ge 3$ flavors. In general, some form of regularization is always wise in empirical problems.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                It depends on your definition of "better."
                You need to define your risk function. If your risk function is MSE, you can do better than simply using the sample means. The idea is to use shrinkage, which as the name suggests means to shrink all your $mu_i$ estimates slightly towards 0. The amount of shrinkage should be proportional to the sample variance $s^2$ of your data (noisier data calls for more shrinkage) and inversely proportional to the number of data points $n$ that you collect. Note that the James-Stein estimator is only better for $m ge 3$ flavors. In general, some form of regularization is always wise in empirical problems.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  It depends on your definition of "better."
                  You need to define your risk function. If your risk function is MSE, you can do better than simply using the sample means. The idea is to use shrinkage, which as the name suggests means to shrink all your $mu_i$ estimates slightly towards 0. The amount of shrinkage should be proportional to the sample variance $s^2$ of your data (noisier data calls for more shrinkage) and inversely proportional to the number of data points $n$ that you collect. Note that the James-Stein estimator is only better for $m ge 3$ flavors. In general, some form of regularization is always wise in empirical problems.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  It depends on your definition of "better."
                  You need to define your risk function. If your risk function is MSE, you can do better than simply using the sample means. The idea is to use shrinkage, which as the name suggests means to shrink all your $mu_i$ estimates slightly towards 0. The amount of shrinkage should be proportional to the sample variance $s^2$ of your data (noisier data calls for more shrinkage) and inversely proportional to the number of data points $n$ that you collect. Note that the James-Stein estimator is only better for $m ge 3$ flavors. In general, some form of regularization is always wise in empirical problems.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 13 '18 at 20:28

























                  answered Dec 13 '18 at 20:22









                  zoidbergzoidberg

                  1,070113




                  1,070113






























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