Show that $lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n} = +infty$












1












$begingroup$



Show that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n} = +infty
$$




The only way i've been able to show that is using Stirling's approximation:
$$
n! simsqrt{2pi n}left(frac{n}{e}right)^n
$$



Let:
$$
begin{cases}
x_n = frac{ln(n!)}{n}\
n in Bbb N
end{cases}
$$



So we may rewrite $x_n$ as:
$$
x_n sim frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n}
$$



Now using the fact that $lim(x_n + y_n) = lim x_n + lim y_n$ :
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}x_n = lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + lim_{ntoinfty}frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n} = 0 + infty
$$



I'm looking for another way to show this, since Stirling's approximation has not been introduced at the point where i took the exercise from yet.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Cesaro-Stolz is the key here.
    $endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 8 '18 at 7:34
















1












$begingroup$



Show that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n} = +infty
$$




The only way i've been able to show that is using Stirling's approximation:
$$
n! simsqrt{2pi n}left(frac{n}{e}right)^n
$$



Let:
$$
begin{cases}
x_n = frac{ln(n!)}{n}\
n in Bbb N
end{cases}
$$



So we may rewrite $x_n$ as:
$$
x_n sim frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n}
$$



Now using the fact that $lim(x_n + y_n) = lim x_n + lim y_n$ :
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}x_n = lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + lim_{ntoinfty}frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n} = 0 + infty
$$



I'm looking for another way to show this, since Stirling's approximation has not been introduced at the point where i took the exercise from yet.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Cesaro-Stolz is the key here.
    $endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 8 '18 at 7:34














1












1








1





$begingroup$



Show that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n} = +infty
$$




The only way i've been able to show that is using Stirling's approximation:
$$
n! simsqrt{2pi n}left(frac{n}{e}right)^n
$$



Let:
$$
begin{cases}
x_n = frac{ln(n!)}{n}\
n in Bbb N
end{cases}
$$



So we may rewrite $x_n$ as:
$$
x_n sim frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n}
$$



Now using the fact that $lim(x_n + y_n) = lim x_n + lim y_n$ :
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}x_n = lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + lim_{ntoinfty}frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n} = 0 + infty
$$



I'm looking for another way to show this, since Stirling's approximation has not been introduced at the point where i took the exercise from yet.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Show that
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n} = +infty
$$




The only way i've been able to show that is using Stirling's approximation:
$$
n! simsqrt{2pi n}left(frac{n}{e}right)^n
$$



Let:
$$
begin{cases}
x_n = frac{ln(n!)}{n}\
n in Bbb N
end{cases}
$$



So we may rewrite $x_n$ as:
$$
x_n sim frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n}
$$



Now using the fact that $lim(x_n + y_n) = lim x_n + lim y_n$ :
$$
lim_{ntoinfty}x_n = lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(2pi n)}{2n} + lim_{ntoinfty}frac{nln(frac{n}{e})}{n} = 0 + infty
$$



I'm looking for another way to show this, since Stirling's approximation has not been introduced at the point where i took the exercise from yet.







calculus sequences-and-series limits factorial






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asked Dec 7 '18 at 15:50









romanroman

2,14421222




2,14421222












  • $begingroup$
    Cesaro-Stolz is the key here.
    $endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 8 '18 at 7:34


















  • $begingroup$
    Cesaro-Stolz is the key here.
    $endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Dec 8 '18 at 7:34
















$begingroup$
Cesaro-Stolz is the key here.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 8 '18 at 7:34




$begingroup$
Cesaro-Stolz is the key here.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 8 '18 at 7:34










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















8












$begingroup$

Another way to show $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n}=infty$$ is to consider the following property of logarithms: $$log(n!)=log(n)+log(n-1)+cdots+log(2)>frac{n}{2}logleft(frac n2right).$$ Now $$frac{log (n!)}{n}>frac{log(n/2)}{2}.$$ As $ntoinfty$, this clearly diverges to $+infty$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
    $endgroup$
    – roman
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:59






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
    $endgroup$
    – Clayton
    Dec 7 '18 at 16:05





















4












$begingroup$

Hint: $$ln(n!)=ln 1+ln2+cdots+ln n$$For all but the smallest $n$, most of those terms are larger than $1$, so the sum is larger than $n$.



For somewhat large $n$, most of those terms are larger than $2$, so the sum is larger than $2n$.



For even larger $n$, most of those terms are larger than $3$, so the sum is larger than $3n$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    The Cesaro-Stolz criterion is your easiest and cleanest way out of this. It states that given sequences $x, y in mathbb{R}^{mathbb{N}}$ such that $y$ is strictly increasing and unbounded and the sequence of successive increments converges in the extended real line



    $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}-x_{n}}{y_{n+1}-y_{n}}=t in overline{mathbb{R}}$$



    then $$lim_{n to infty}frac{x_{n}}{y_{n}}=t$$



    You can apply this to $x=(mathrm{ln}(n!))_{n in mathbb{N}}$ and $y=(n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.



    A similar argument would rely on a version of the ratio criterion: if $x in (0, infty)^{mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of strictly positive reals such that



    $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=a in [0, infty]$$



    then



    $$lim_{n to infty} sqrt [n]{x_{n}}=a$$



    This criterion itself can be proved by the Cesaro-Stolz criterion (there are also other methods) and you can apply it to conclude that



    $$sqrt[n]{n!} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$$



    as $frac{(n+1)!}{n!}=n+1 xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$.



    In the same vein of employing ratios, one can settle the convergence of the sequence
    $$left(frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}=left(sqrt[n]{frac{n!}{n^n}}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}$$



    by studying the sequence of successive ratios:



    $$ frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} cdot frac{n^n}{n!}=left(frac{n}{n+1}right)^{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} frac{1}{mathrm{e}}$$



    Hence,



    $$sqrt[n]{n!}=n cdot frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty cdot frac{1}{mathrm{e}}=infty$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      We have that



      $$ln(n!)ge n ln n - n$$



      then



      $$frac{ln(n!)}{n}ge ln n -1 to infty$$



      For the proof of the first inequality refer to




      • Prove that $n ln(n) - n le ln(n!)$ without Stirling






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        1












        $begingroup$

        Here is another way considering




        • $e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}$


        begin{eqnarray*} e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}
        & = & sqrt[n]{n!}\
        & stackrel{GM-HM}{geq} & frac{n}{frac{1}{1}+cdots frac{1}{n}} \
        & stackrel{sum_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} < ln n + 1}{>} & frac{n}{ln n +1} \
        & stackrel{n to infty}{longrightarrow} & +infty
        end{eqnarray*}






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













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          5 Answers
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          5 Answers
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          active

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          8












          $begingroup$

          Another way to show $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n}=infty$$ is to consider the following property of logarithms: $$log(n!)=log(n)+log(n-1)+cdots+log(2)>frac{n}{2}logleft(frac n2right).$$ Now $$frac{log (n!)}{n}>frac{log(n/2)}{2}.$$ As $ntoinfty$, this clearly diverges to $+infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
            $endgroup$
            – roman
            Dec 7 '18 at 15:59






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
            $endgroup$
            – Clayton
            Dec 7 '18 at 16:05


















          8












          $begingroup$

          Another way to show $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n}=infty$$ is to consider the following property of logarithms: $$log(n!)=log(n)+log(n-1)+cdots+log(2)>frac{n}{2}logleft(frac n2right).$$ Now $$frac{log (n!)}{n}>frac{log(n/2)}{2}.$$ As $ntoinfty$, this clearly diverges to $+infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
            $endgroup$
            – roman
            Dec 7 '18 at 15:59






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
            $endgroup$
            – Clayton
            Dec 7 '18 at 16:05
















          8












          8








          8





          $begingroup$

          Another way to show $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n}=infty$$ is to consider the following property of logarithms: $$log(n!)=log(n)+log(n-1)+cdots+log(2)>frac{n}{2}logleft(frac n2right).$$ Now $$frac{log (n!)}{n}>frac{log(n/2)}{2}.$$ As $ntoinfty$, this clearly diverges to $+infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Another way to show $$lim_{ntoinfty}frac{ln(n!)}{n}=infty$$ is to consider the following property of logarithms: $$log(n!)=log(n)+log(n-1)+cdots+log(2)>frac{n}{2}logleft(frac n2right).$$ Now $$frac{log (n!)}{n}>frac{log(n/2)}{2}.$$ As $ntoinfty$, this clearly diverges to $+infty$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 7 '18 at 15:54









          ClaytonClayton

          19.1k33185




          19.1k33185








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
            $endgroup$
            – roman
            Dec 7 '18 at 15:59






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
            $endgroup$
            – Clayton
            Dec 7 '18 at 16:05
















          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
            $endgroup$
            – roman
            Dec 7 '18 at 15:59






          • 3




            $begingroup$
            @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
            $endgroup$
            – Clayton
            Dec 7 '18 at 16:05










          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
          $endgroup$
          – roman
          Dec 7 '18 at 15:59




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the answer, could you please elaborate on $ln(n!) > frac{n}{2}lnleft(frac{n}{2}right)$?
          $endgroup$
          – roman
          Dec 7 '18 at 15:59




          3




          3




          $begingroup$
          @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
          $endgroup$
          – Clayton
          Dec 7 '18 at 16:05






          $begingroup$
          @roman: There are $n-1$ terms in the sum after expanding the logarithm (therefore, there are at least $n/2$ terms for $n>3$...this is where the first $n/2$ comes from). Now, if we take the first $n/2$ terms in the sum, the argument of the logarithms in all of these terms is at least $n/2$ (that is, $log(n)>log(n/2)$, $log(n-1)>log(n/2)$, etc.)
          $endgroup$
          – Clayton
          Dec 7 '18 at 16:05













          4












          $begingroup$

          Hint: $$ln(n!)=ln 1+ln2+cdots+ln n$$For all but the smallest $n$, most of those terms are larger than $1$, so the sum is larger than $n$.



          For somewhat large $n$, most of those terms are larger than $2$, so the sum is larger than $2n$.



          For even larger $n$, most of those terms are larger than $3$, so the sum is larger than $3n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$


















            4












            $begingroup$

            Hint: $$ln(n!)=ln 1+ln2+cdots+ln n$$For all but the smallest $n$, most of those terms are larger than $1$, so the sum is larger than $n$.



            For somewhat large $n$, most of those terms are larger than $2$, so the sum is larger than $2n$.



            For even larger $n$, most of those terms are larger than $3$, so the sum is larger than $3n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$
















              4












              4








              4





              $begingroup$

              Hint: $$ln(n!)=ln 1+ln2+cdots+ln n$$For all but the smallest $n$, most of those terms are larger than $1$, so the sum is larger than $n$.



              For somewhat large $n$, most of those terms are larger than $2$, so the sum is larger than $2n$.



              For even larger $n$, most of those terms are larger than $3$, so the sum is larger than $3n$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Hint: $$ln(n!)=ln 1+ln2+cdots+ln n$$For all but the smallest $n$, most of those terms are larger than $1$, so the sum is larger than $n$.



              For somewhat large $n$, most of those terms are larger than $2$, so the sum is larger than $2n$.



              For even larger $n$, most of those terms are larger than $3$, so the sum is larger than $3n$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 7 '18 at 15:54









              ArthurArthur

              113k7113196




              113k7113196























                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  The Cesaro-Stolz criterion is your easiest and cleanest way out of this. It states that given sequences $x, y in mathbb{R}^{mathbb{N}}$ such that $y$ is strictly increasing and unbounded and the sequence of successive increments converges in the extended real line



                  $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}-x_{n}}{y_{n+1}-y_{n}}=t in overline{mathbb{R}}$$



                  then $$lim_{n to infty}frac{x_{n}}{y_{n}}=t$$



                  You can apply this to $x=(mathrm{ln}(n!))_{n in mathbb{N}}$ and $y=(n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.



                  A similar argument would rely on a version of the ratio criterion: if $x in (0, infty)^{mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of strictly positive reals such that



                  $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=a in [0, infty]$$



                  then



                  $$lim_{n to infty} sqrt [n]{x_{n}}=a$$



                  This criterion itself can be proved by the Cesaro-Stolz criterion (there are also other methods) and you can apply it to conclude that



                  $$sqrt[n]{n!} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$$



                  as $frac{(n+1)!}{n!}=n+1 xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$.



                  In the same vein of employing ratios, one can settle the convergence of the sequence
                  $$left(frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}=left(sqrt[n]{frac{n!}{n^n}}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}$$



                  by studying the sequence of successive ratios:



                  $$ frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} cdot frac{n^n}{n!}=left(frac{n}{n+1}right)^{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} frac{1}{mathrm{e}}$$



                  Hence,



                  $$sqrt[n]{n!}=n cdot frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty cdot frac{1}{mathrm{e}}=infty$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$


















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    The Cesaro-Stolz criterion is your easiest and cleanest way out of this. It states that given sequences $x, y in mathbb{R}^{mathbb{N}}$ such that $y$ is strictly increasing and unbounded and the sequence of successive increments converges in the extended real line



                    $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}-x_{n}}{y_{n+1}-y_{n}}=t in overline{mathbb{R}}$$



                    then $$lim_{n to infty}frac{x_{n}}{y_{n}}=t$$



                    You can apply this to $x=(mathrm{ln}(n!))_{n in mathbb{N}}$ and $y=(n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.



                    A similar argument would rely on a version of the ratio criterion: if $x in (0, infty)^{mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of strictly positive reals such that



                    $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=a in [0, infty]$$



                    then



                    $$lim_{n to infty} sqrt [n]{x_{n}}=a$$



                    This criterion itself can be proved by the Cesaro-Stolz criterion (there are also other methods) and you can apply it to conclude that



                    $$sqrt[n]{n!} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$$



                    as $frac{(n+1)!}{n!}=n+1 xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$.



                    In the same vein of employing ratios, one can settle the convergence of the sequence
                    $$left(frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}=left(sqrt[n]{frac{n!}{n^n}}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}$$



                    by studying the sequence of successive ratios:



                    $$ frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} cdot frac{n^n}{n!}=left(frac{n}{n+1}right)^{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} frac{1}{mathrm{e}}$$



                    Hence,



                    $$sqrt[n]{n!}=n cdot frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty cdot frac{1}{mathrm{e}}=infty$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$
















                      2












                      2








                      2





                      $begingroup$

                      The Cesaro-Stolz criterion is your easiest and cleanest way out of this. It states that given sequences $x, y in mathbb{R}^{mathbb{N}}$ such that $y$ is strictly increasing and unbounded and the sequence of successive increments converges in the extended real line



                      $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}-x_{n}}{y_{n+1}-y_{n}}=t in overline{mathbb{R}}$$



                      then $$lim_{n to infty}frac{x_{n}}{y_{n}}=t$$



                      You can apply this to $x=(mathrm{ln}(n!))_{n in mathbb{N}}$ and $y=(n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.



                      A similar argument would rely on a version of the ratio criterion: if $x in (0, infty)^{mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of strictly positive reals such that



                      $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=a in [0, infty]$$



                      then



                      $$lim_{n to infty} sqrt [n]{x_{n}}=a$$



                      This criterion itself can be proved by the Cesaro-Stolz criterion (there are also other methods) and you can apply it to conclude that



                      $$sqrt[n]{n!} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$$



                      as $frac{(n+1)!}{n!}=n+1 xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$.



                      In the same vein of employing ratios, one can settle the convergence of the sequence
                      $$left(frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}=left(sqrt[n]{frac{n!}{n^n}}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}$$



                      by studying the sequence of successive ratios:



                      $$ frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} cdot frac{n^n}{n!}=left(frac{n}{n+1}right)^{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} frac{1}{mathrm{e}}$$



                      Hence,



                      $$sqrt[n]{n!}=n cdot frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty cdot frac{1}{mathrm{e}}=infty$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      The Cesaro-Stolz criterion is your easiest and cleanest way out of this. It states that given sequences $x, y in mathbb{R}^{mathbb{N}}$ such that $y$ is strictly increasing and unbounded and the sequence of successive increments converges in the extended real line



                      $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}-x_{n}}{y_{n+1}-y_{n}}=t in overline{mathbb{R}}$$



                      then $$lim_{n to infty}frac{x_{n}}{y_{n}}=t$$



                      You can apply this to $x=(mathrm{ln}(n!))_{n in mathbb{N}}$ and $y=(n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.



                      A similar argument would rely on a version of the ratio criterion: if $x in (0, infty)^{mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of strictly positive reals such that



                      $$lim_{n to infty} frac{x_{n+1}}{x_n}=a in [0, infty]$$



                      then



                      $$lim_{n to infty} sqrt [n]{x_{n}}=a$$



                      This criterion itself can be proved by the Cesaro-Stolz criterion (there are also other methods) and you can apply it to conclude that



                      $$sqrt[n]{n!} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$$



                      as $frac{(n+1)!}{n!}=n+1 xrightarrow{n to infty} infty$.



                      In the same vein of employing ratios, one can settle the convergence of the sequence
                      $$left(frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}=left(sqrt[n]{frac{n!}{n^n}}right)_{n in mathbb{N}^{*}}$$



                      by studying the sequence of successive ratios:



                      $$ frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}} cdot frac{n^n}{n!}=left(frac{n}{n+1}right)^{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} frac{1}{mathrm{e}}$$



                      Hence,



                      $$sqrt[n]{n!}=n cdot frac{sqrt[n]{n!}}{n} xrightarrow{n to infty} infty cdot frac{1}{mathrm{e}}=infty$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Dec 8 '18 at 4:58

























                      answered Dec 7 '18 at 16:01









                      ΑΘΩΑΘΩ

                      2463




                      2463























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          We have that



                          $$ln(n!)ge n ln n - n$$



                          then



                          $$frac{ln(n!)}{n}ge ln n -1 to infty$$



                          For the proof of the first inequality refer to




                          • Prove that $n ln(n) - n le ln(n!)$ without Stirling






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            We have that



                            $$ln(n!)ge n ln n - n$$



                            then



                            $$frac{ln(n!)}{n}ge ln n -1 to infty$$



                            For the proof of the first inequality refer to




                            • Prove that $n ln(n) - n le ln(n!)$ without Stirling






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              We have that



                              $$ln(n!)ge n ln n - n$$



                              then



                              $$frac{ln(n!)}{n}ge ln n -1 to infty$$



                              For the proof of the first inequality refer to




                              • Prove that $n ln(n) - n le ln(n!)$ without Stirling






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              We have that



                              $$ln(n!)ge n ln n - n$$



                              then



                              $$frac{ln(n!)}{n}ge ln n -1 to infty$$



                              For the proof of the first inequality refer to




                              • Prove that $n ln(n) - n le ln(n!)$ without Stirling







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Dec 7 '18 at 16:23









                              gimusigimusi

                              92.8k84494




                              92.8k84494























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Here is another way considering




                                  • $e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}$


                                  begin{eqnarray*} e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}
                                  & = & sqrt[n]{n!}\
                                  & stackrel{GM-HM}{geq} & frac{n}{frac{1}{1}+cdots frac{1}{n}} \
                                  & stackrel{sum_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} < ln n + 1}{>} & frac{n}{ln n +1} \
                                  & stackrel{n to infty}{longrightarrow} & +infty
                                  end{eqnarray*}






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Here is another way considering




                                    • $e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}$


                                    begin{eqnarray*} e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}
                                    & = & sqrt[n]{n!}\
                                    & stackrel{GM-HM}{geq} & frac{n}{frac{1}{1}+cdots frac{1}{n}} \
                                    & stackrel{sum_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} < ln n + 1}{>} & frac{n}{ln n +1} \
                                    & stackrel{n to infty}{longrightarrow} & +infty
                                    end{eqnarray*}






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      1












                                      1








                                      1





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Here is another way considering




                                      • $e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}$


                                      begin{eqnarray*} e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}
                                      & = & sqrt[n]{n!}\
                                      & stackrel{GM-HM}{geq} & frac{n}{frac{1}{1}+cdots frac{1}{n}} \
                                      & stackrel{sum_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} < ln n + 1}{>} & frac{n}{ln n +1} \
                                      & stackrel{n to infty}{longrightarrow} & +infty
                                      end{eqnarray*}






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      Here is another way considering




                                      • $e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}$


                                      begin{eqnarray*} e^{frac{ln n!}{n}}
                                      & = & sqrt[n]{n!}\
                                      & stackrel{GM-HM}{geq} & frac{n}{frac{1}{1}+cdots frac{1}{n}} \
                                      & stackrel{sum_{k=1}^n frac{1}{k} < ln n + 1}{>} & frac{n}{ln n +1} \
                                      & stackrel{n to infty}{longrightarrow} & +infty
                                      end{eqnarray*}







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Dec 7 '18 at 16:30









                                      trancelocationtrancelocation

                                      10.6k1722




                                      10.6k1722






























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