Does uniform convergence of $f$ imply convergance of derivatives?












1












$begingroup$


Let $X$ denote the collection of all differentiable functions $f : [0, 1] rightarrow Bbb R$, such that $f(0)=0$ and $f'$ is continuous.



Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f_n$ converges uniformly to some $f$.



Does that imply that $f'_n rightarrow f'$ uniformly?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $X$ denote the collection of all differentiable functions $f : [0, 1] rightarrow Bbb R$, such that $f(0)=0$ and $f'$ is continuous.



    Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f_n$ converges uniformly to some $f$.



    Does that imply that $f'_n rightarrow f'$ uniformly?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $X$ denote the collection of all differentiable functions $f : [0, 1] rightarrow Bbb R$, such that $f(0)=0$ and $f'$ is continuous.



      Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f_n$ converges uniformly to some $f$.



      Does that imply that $f'_n rightarrow f'$ uniformly?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $X$ denote the collection of all differentiable functions $f : [0, 1] rightarrow Bbb R$, such that $f(0)=0$ and $f'$ is continuous.



      Let ${f_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f_n$ converges uniformly to some $f$.



      Does that imply that $f'_n rightarrow f'$ uniformly?







      real-analysis derivatives convergence uniform-convergence






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 7 '18 at 14:37









      Cebiş Mellim

      13011




      13011










      asked Apr 29 '14 at 17:48









      KatestrophicalKatestrophical

      495




      495






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          No! Imagine the $f_n$ getting close to $f$ uniformly, but getting bumpier and bumpier. You should be able to use this idea to come up with a counterexample.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Gubkin
            Apr 29 '14 at 17:54










          • $begingroup$
            What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
            $endgroup$
            – Katestrophical
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:12












          • $begingroup$
            Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Gubkin
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:21










          • $begingroup$
            @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
            $endgroup$
            – derivative
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:23



















          0












          $begingroup$

          This is a counterexample. Take e.g. $f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} (sqrt{1+(n x)^2} - 1)$. We have that $f_n(0) = 0$, and $f'_n(x) = dfrac{nx}{sqrt{1+(nx)^2}}$ is continuous. We also have that $lim_{ntoinfty} f_n(x) = |x|$, and
          $$
          |x| - f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} left(1 - frac{1}{n|x| + sqrt{1 + (nx)^2}}right)
          $$

          hence $0 leq |x| - f_n(x) < frac{1}{n}$ for every $x$, which implies that $f_n(x) to |x|$ uniformly. On the other hand
          $$
          lim_{ntoinfty} f'_n(x) =
          begin{cases}
          1 & text{ if $x>0$} \
          0 & text{ if $x=0$} \
          -1 & text{ if $x<0$}
          end{cases}
          $$

          So we have that $f'_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions that converge to a discontinuous function, so its convergence cannot be uniform.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer





            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            });
            });
            }, "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function() {
            var channelOptions = {
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            };
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
            createEditor();
            });
            }
            else {
            createEditor();
            }
            });

            function createEditor() {
            StackExchange.prepareEditor({
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: true,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            imageUploader: {
            brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
            contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
            allowUrls: true
            },
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            });


            }
            });














            draft saved

            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f774520%2fdoes-uniform-convergence-of-f-imply-convergance-of-derivatives%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown

























            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            No! Imagine the $f_n$ getting close to $f$ uniformly, but getting bumpier and bumpier. You should be able to use this idea to come up with a counterexample.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 17:54










            • $begingroup$
              What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
              $endgroup$
              – Katestrophical
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:12












            • $begingroup$
              Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
              $endgroup$
              – derivative
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:23
















            2












            $begingroup$

            No! Imagine the $f_n$ getting close to $f$ uniformly, but getting bumpier and bumpier. You should be able to use this idea to come up with a counterexample.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 17:54










            • $begingroup$
              What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
              $endgroup$
              – Katestrophical
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:12












            • $begingroup$
              Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
              $endgroup$
              – derivative
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:23














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            No! Imagine the $f_n$ getting close to $f$ uniformly, but getting bumpier and bumpier. You should be able to use this idea to come up with a counterexample.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            No! Imagine the $f_n$ getting close to $f$ uniformly, but getting bumpier and bumpier. You should be able to use this idea to come up with a counterexample.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Apr 29 '14 at 17:52









            Steven GubkinSteven Gubkin

            5,6241531




            5,6241531












            • $begingroup$
              As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 17:54










            • $begingroup$
              What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
              $endgroup$
              – Katestrophical
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:12












            • $begingroup$
              Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
              $endgroup$
              – derivative
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:23


















            • $begingroup$
              As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 17:54










            • $begingroup$
              What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
              $endgroup$
              – Katestrophical
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:12












            • $begingroup$
              Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
              $endgroup$
              – Steven Gubkin
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
              $endgroup$
              – derivative
              Apr 29 '14 at 18:23
















            $begingroup$
            As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Gubkin
            Apr 29 '14 at 17:54




            $begingroup$
            As an idea, try looking at the sequence $f+frac{1}{n}phi(nx)$, where $phi$ is a bounded function with derivative $1$ at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Gubkin
            Apr 29 '14 at 17:54












            $begingroup$
            What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
            $endgroup$
            – Katestrophical
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:12






            $begingroup$
            What if we flipped $f$ and $f'$ ? $$$$ Let ${f'_n}$ be a Cauchy sequence. By Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence, $f'_n$ converges uniformly to some $f'$. Does that imply that $f_n rightarrow f$ uniformly?
            $endgroup$
            – Katestrophical
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:12














            $begingroup$
            Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Gubkin
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:21




            $begingroup$
            Up to a constant, yes. This is just fundamental theorem of calculus + interchanging integration and uniform limits. Generally, integration behaves well numerically, differentiation does not.
            $endgroup$
            – Steven Gubkin
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:21












            $begingroup$
            @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
            $endgroup$
            – derivative
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:23




            $begingroup$
            @Katestrophical see math.stackexchange.com/q/214218/99325
            $endgroup$
            – derivative
            Apr 29 '14 at 18:23











            0












            $begingroup$

            This is a counterexample. Take e.g. $f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} (sqrt{1+(n x)^2} - 1)$. We have that $f_n(0) = 0$, and $f'_n(x) = dfrac{nx}{sqrt{1+(nx)^2}}$ is continuous. We also have that $lim_{ntoinfty} f_n(x) = |x|$, and
            $$
            |x| - f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} left(1 - frac{1}{n|x| + sqrt{1 + (nx)^2}}right)
            $$

            hence $0 leq |x| - f_n(x) < frac{1}{n}$ for every $x$, which implies that $f_n(x) to |x|$ uniformly. On the other hand
            $$
            lim_{ntoinfty} f'_n(x) =
            begin{cases}
            1 & text{ if $x>0$} \
            0 & text{ if $x=0$} \
            -1 & text{ if $x<0$}
            end{cases}
            $$

            So we have that $f'_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions that converge to a discontinuous function, so its convergence cannot be uniform.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              This is a counterexample. Take e.g. $f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} (sqrt{1+(n x)^2} - 1)$. We have that $f_n(0) = 0$, and $f'_n(x) = dfrac{nx}{sqrt{1+(nx)^2}}$ is continuous. We also have that $lim_{ntoinfty} f_n(x) = |x|$, and
              $$
              |x| - f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} left(1 - frac{1}{n|x| + sqrt{1 + (nx)^2}}right)
              $$

              hence $0 leq |x| - f_n(x) < frac{1}{n}$ for every $x$, which implies that $f_n(x) to |x|$ uniformly. On the other hand
              $$
              lim_{ntoinfty} f'_n(x) =
              begin{cases}
              1 & text{ if $x>0$} \
              0 & text{ if $x=0$} \
              -1 & text{ if $x<0$}
              end{cases}
              $$

              So we have that $f'_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions that converge to a discontinuous function, so its convergence cannot be uniform.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                This is a counterexample. Take e.g. $f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} (sqrt{1+(n x)^2} - 1)$. We have that $f_n(0) = 0$, and $f'_n(x) = dfrac{nx}{sqrt{1+(nx)^2}}$ is continuous. We also have that $lim_{ntoinfty} f_n(x) = |x|$, and
                $$
                |x| - f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} left(1 - frac{1}{n|x| + sqrt{1 + (nx)^2}}right)
                $$

                hence $0 leq |x| - f_n(x) < frac{1}{n}$ for every $x$, which implies that $f_n(x) to |x|$ uniformly. On the other hand
                $$
                lim_{ntoinfty} f'_n(x) =
                begin{cases}
                1 & text{ if $x>0$} \
                0 & text{ if $x=0$} \
                -1 & text{ if $x<0$}
                end{cases}
                $$

                So we have that $f'_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions that converge to a discontinuous function, so its convergence cannot be uniform.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                This is a counterexample. Take e.g. $f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} (sqrt{1+(n x)^2} - 1)$. We have that $f_n(0) = 0$, and $f'_n(x) = dfrac{nx}{sqrt{1+(nx)^2}}$ is continuous. We also have that $lim_{ntoinfty} f_n(x) = |x|$, and
                $$
                |x| - f_n(x) = frac{1}{n} left(1 - frac{1}{n|x| + sqrt{1 + (nx)^2}}right)
                $$

                hence $0 leq |x| - f_n(x) < frac{1}{n}$ for every $x$, which implies that $f_n(x) to |x|$ uniformly. On the other hand
                $$
                lim_{ntoinfty} f'_n(x) =
                begin{cases}
                1 & text{ if $x>0$} \
                0 & text{ if $x=0$} \
                -1 & text{ if $x<0$}
                end{cases}
                $$

                So we have that $f'_n$ is a sequence of continuous functions that converge to a discontinuous function, so its convergence cannot be uniform.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 7 '18 at 16:46









                mlerma54mlerma54

                1,177148




                1,177148






























                    draft saved

                    draft discarded




















































                    Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                    • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                    But avoid



                    • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                    • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                    Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                    To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function () {
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f774520%2fdoes-uniform-convergence-of-f-imply-convergance-of-derivatives%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                    }
                    );

                    Post as a guest















                    Required, but never shown





















































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown

































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown







                    Popular posts from this blog

                    Probability when a professor distributes a quiz and homework assignment to a class of n students.

                    Aardman Animations

                    Are they similar matrix