Prove using Leibniz's Product Rule












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Suppose $fin C^{infty}(mathbb R)$. Show that for $x neq 0$
$$frac{1}{x^{n+1}}f^{(n)}(frac{1}{x})=(-1)^{n}frac{d^n}{dx^n}[x^{n-1}f(frac{1}{x})]$$




I am supposed to attempt it from right-hand side to left-hand side using Leibniz product rule for derivative, but I found out that I stuck on simplifying the sigma notation. Any clue for it?










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  • $begingroup$
    Did you try induction?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:23










  • $begingroup$
    Nope. Because I am concerned about the derivative of $f(frac{1}{n})$ of order $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:25


















0












$begingroup$



Suppose $fin C^{infty}(mathbb R)$. Show that for $x neq 0$
$$frac{1}{x^{n+1}}f^{(n)}(frac{1}{x})=(-1)^{n}frac{d^n}{dx^n}[x^{n-1}f(frac{1}{x})]$$




I am supposed to attempt it from right-hand side to left-hand side using Leibniz product rule for derivative, but I found out that I stuck on simplifying the sigma notation. Any clue for it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Did you try induction?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:23










  • $begingroup$
    Nope. Because I am concerned about the derivative of $f(frac{1}{n})$ of order $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:25
















0












0








0


0



$begingroup$



Suppose $fin C^{infty}(mathbb R)$. Show that for $x neq 0$
$$frac{1}{x^{n+1}}f^{(n)}(frac{1}{x})=(-1)^{n}frac{d^n}{dx^n}[x^{n-1}f(frac{1}{x})]$$




I am supposed to attempt it from right-hand side to left-hand side using Leibniz product rule for derivative, but I found out that I stuck on simplifying the sigma notation. Any clue for it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Suppose $fin C^{infty}(mathbb R)$. Show that for $x neq 0$
$$frac{1}{x^{n+1}}f^{(n)}(frac{1}{x})=(-1)^{n}frac{d^n}{dx^n}[x^{n-1}f(frac{1}{x})]$$




I am supposed to attempt it from right-hand side to left-hand side using Leibniz product rule for derivative, but I found out that I stuck on simplifying the sigma notation. Any clue for it?







derivatives






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 7 '18 at 17:27







weilam06

















asked Dec 7 '18 at 16:09









weilam06weilam06

9511




9511












  • $begingroup$
    Did you try induction?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:23










  • $begingroup$
    Nope. Because I am concerned about the derivative of $f(frac{1}{n})$ of order $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:25




















  • $begingroup$
    Did you try induction?
    $endgroup$
    – Will M.
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:23










  • $begingroup$
    Nope. Because I am concerned about the derivative of $f(frac{1}{n})$ of order $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – weilam06
    Dec 7 '18 at 17:25


















$begingroup$
Did you try induction?
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 7 '18 at 17:23




$begingroup$
Did you try induction?
$endgroup$
– Will M.
Dec 7 '18 at 17:23












$begingroup$
Nope. Because I am concerned about the derivative of $f(frac{1}{n})$ of order $n$.
$endgroup$
– weilam06
Dec 7 '18 at 17:25






$begingroup$
Nope. Because I am concerned about the derivative of $f(frac{1}{n})$ of order $n$.
$endgroup$
– weilam06
Dec 7 '18 at 17:25












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