Compute the limit $lim_{x to 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}$ using L'Hopital's
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I needed some help with computing a limit of a function. I can compute it directly but I'm asked to use L'Hopital's and can't see where to start or how to use it for my function.
My limit expression is:
$$lim_{x to 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}.$$
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
calculus limits
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I needed some help with computing a limit of a function. I can compute it directly but I'm asked to use L'Hopital's and can't see where to start or how to use it for my function.
My limit expression is:
$$lim_{x to 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}.$$
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
calculus limits
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
Take a logarithm first, and notice that $sin x ln sin x = frac{ln sin x}{1/sin x}$ becomes $$frac{cos x / sin x}{-cos x / sin^2 x}.$$
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 5 at 0:40
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As you now have it as a fraction, do i compute L'Hopitals on this?
$endgroup$
– The Statistician
Jan 5 at 0:48
1
$begingroup$
Why not get rid of $sin x$ by using $t=sin x$ and then your limit is equal to $lim_{tto 0^{+}}t^t$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 5 at 12:55
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I needed some help with computing a limit of a function. I can compute it directly but I'm asked to use L'Hopital's and can't see where to start or how to use it for my function.
My limit expression is:
$$lim_{x to 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}.$$
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
calculus limits
$endgroup$
I needed some help with computing a limit of a function. I can compute it directly but I'm asked to use L'Hopital's and can't see where to start or how to use it for my function.
My limit expression is:
$$lim_{x to 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}.$$
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
calculus limits
calculus limits
edited Jan 5 at 0:40
T. Bongers
23.5k54762
23.5k54762
asked Jan 5 at 0:38
The StatisticianThe Statistician
115112
115112
3
$begingroup$
Take a logarithm first, and notice that $sin x ln sin x = frac{ln sin x}{1/sin x}$ becomes $$frac{cos x / sin x}{-cos x / sin^2 x}.$$
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 5 at 0:40
$begingroup$
As you now have it as a fraction, do i compute L'Hopitals on this?
$endgroup$
– The Statistician
Jan 5 at 0:48
1
$begingroup$
Why not get rid of $sin x$ by using $t=sin x$ and then your limit is equal to $lim_{tto 0^{+}}t^t$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 5 at 12:55
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
Take a logarithm first, and notice that $sin x ln sin x = frac{ln sin x}{1/sin x}$ becomes $$frac{cos x / sin x}{-cos x / sin^2 x}.$$
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 5 at 0:40
$begingroup$
As you now have it as a fraction, do i compute L'Hopitals on this?
$endgroup$
– The Statistician
Jan 5 at 0:48
1
$begingroup$
Why not get rid of $sin x$ by using $t=sin x$ and then your limit is equal to $lim_{tto 0^{+}}t^t$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 5 at 12:55
3
3
$begingroup$
Take a logarithm first, and notice that $sin x ln sin x = frac{ln sin x}{1/sin x}$ becomes $$frac{cos x / sin x}{-cos x / sin^2 x}.$$
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 5 at 0:40
$begingroup$
Take a logarithm first, and notice that $sin x ln sin x = frac{ln sin x}{1/sin x}$ becomes $$frac{cos x / sin x}{-cos x / sin^2 x}.$$
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 5 at 0:40
$begingroup$
As you now have it as a fraction, do i compute L'Hopitals on this?
$endgroup$
– The Statistician
Jan 5 at 0:48
$begingroup$
As you now have it as a fraction, do i compute L'Hopitals on this?
$endgroup$
– The Statistician
Jan 5 at 0:48
1
1
$begingroup$
Why not get rid of $sin x$ by using $t=sin x$ and then your limit is equal to $lim_{tto 0^{+}}t^t$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 5 at 12:55
$begingroup$
Why not get rid of $sin x$ by using $t=sin x$ and then your limit is equal to $lim_{tto 0^{+}}t^t$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 5 at 12:55
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let's say the limit is $y$:
$$y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}$$
Let's take the natural log of both sides in order to get rid of the exponentiation:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)ln(sin x)$$
Now, this is a $0cdot -infty$ expression, which is indeterminate, but not a fraction where we can apply L'Hopital's rule. One really easy way to get this kind of expression into a fraction is by changing $sin x$ into $frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}$:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}ln(sin x)=frac{ln(sin x)}{frac{1}{sin x}}$$
Now, we have a $frac{-infty}{infty}$ expression, so we can apply L'Hopital's. Take the derivative of both the numerator and denominator:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{frac{cos x}{sin x}}{frac{-cos x}{sin^2 x}}$$
Simplify the fraction:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} -sin x=-sin 0=0$$
Thus, since $ln y=0$, we find that $y=1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Using T.Bongers hint we are first of all left with the following
$$log(L)=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)$$
Approaching zero from the RHS we can conclude that the sine term tends to $0$ whereas the logarithmic term tends to negative infinity. Hence we are forced to establish the form $fracinftyinfty$ to use L'Hospitals rule we may rewrite the product as a fraction which fulfills the given condititons
$$begin{align*}
log(L)&=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{log(sin x)}{1/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{cot(x)}{-1cot(x)/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}-sin(x)\
log(L)&=0
end{align*}$$
$$therefore~L=1$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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oldest
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2 Answers
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
Let's say the limit is $y$:
$$y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}$$
Let's take the natural log of both sides in order to get rid of the exponentiation:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)ln(sin x)$$
Now, this is a $0cdot -infty$ expression, which is indeterminate, but not a fraction where we can apply L'Hopital's rule. One really easy way to get this kind of expression into a fraction is by changing $sin x$ into $frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}$:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}ln(sin x)=frac{ln(sin x)}{frac{1}{sin x}}$$
Now, we have a $frac{-infty}{infty}$ expression, so we can apply L'Hopital's. Take the derivative of both the numerator and denominator:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{frac{cos x}{sin x}}{frac{-cos x}{sin^2 x}}$$
Simplify the fraction:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} -sin x=-sin 0=0$$
Thus, since $ln y=0$, we find that $y=1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's say the limit is $y$:
$$y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}$$
Let's take the natural log of both sides in order to get rid of the exponentiation:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)ln(sin x)$$
Now, this is a $0cdot -infty$ expression, which is indeterminate, but not a fraction where we can apply L'Hopital's rule. One really easy way to get this kind of expression into a fraction is by changing $sin x$ into $frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}$:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}ln(sin x)=frac{ln(sin x)}{frac{1}{sin x}}$$
Now, we have a $frac{-infty}{infty}$ expression, so we can apply L'Hopital's. Take the derivative of both the numerator and denominator:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{frac{cos x}{sin x}}{frac{-cos x}{sin^2 x}}$$
Simplify the fraction:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} -sin x=-sin 0=0$$
Thus, since $ln y=0$, we find that $y=1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let's say the limit is $y$:
$$y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}$$
Let's take the natural log of both sides in order to get rid of the exponentiation:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)ln(sin x)$$
Now, this is a $0cdot -infty$ expression, which is indeterminate, but not a fraction where we can apply L'Hopital's rule. One really easy way to get this kind of expression into a fraction is by changing $sin x$ into $frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}$:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}ln(sin x)=frac{ln(sin x)}{frac{1}{sin x}}$$
Now, we have a $frac{-infty}{infty}$ expression, so we can apply L'Hopital's. Take the derivative of both the numerator and denominator:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{frac{cos x}{sin x}}{frac{-cos x}{sin^2 x}}$$
Simplify the fraction:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} -sin x=-sin 0=0$$
Thus, since $ln y=0$, we find that $y=1$.
$endgroup$
Let's say the limit is $y$:
$$y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)^{sin x}$$
Let's take the natural log of both sides in order to get rid of the exponentiation:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} (sin x)ln(sin x)$$
Now, this is a $0cdot -infty$ expression, which is indeterminate, but not a fraction where we can apply L'Hopital's rule. One really easy way to get this kind of expression into a fraction is by changing $sin x$ into $frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}$:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{1}{frac{1}{sin x}}ln(sin x)=frac{ln(sin x)}{frac{1}{sin x}}$$
Now, we have a $frac{-infty}{infty}$ expression, so we can apply L'Hopital's. Take the derivative of both the numerator and denominator:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} frac{frac{cos x}{sin x}}{frac{-cos x}{sin^2 x}}$$
Simplify the fraction:
$$ln y=lim_{xto 0^+} -sin x=-sin 0=0$$
Thus, since $ln y=0$, we find that $y=1$.
answered Jan 5 at 0:54
Noble MushtakNoble Mushtak
15.3k1835
15.3k1835
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Using T.Bongers hint we are first of all left with the following
$$log(L)=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)$$
Approaching zero from the RHS we can conclude that the sine term tends to $0$ whereas the logarithmic term tends to negative infinity. Hence we are forced to establish the form $fracinftyinfty$ to use L'Hospitals rule we may rewrite the product as a fraction which fulfills the given condititons
$$begin{align*}
log(L)&=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{log(sin x)}{1/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{cot(x)}{-1cot(x)/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}-sin(x)\
log(L)&=0
end{align*}$$
$$therefore~L=1$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Using T.Bongers hint we are first of all left with the following
$$log(L)=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)$$
Approaching zero from the RHS we can conclude that the sine term tends to $0$ whereas the logarithmic term tends to negative infinity. Hence we are forced to establish the form $fracinftyinfty$ to use L'Hospitals rule we may rewrite the product as a fraction which fulfills the given condititons
$$begin{align*}
log(L)&=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{log(sin x)}{1/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{cot(x)}{-1cot(x)/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}-sin(x)\
log(L)&=0
end{align*}$$
$$therefore~L=1$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Using T.Bongers hint we are first of all left with the following
$$log(L)=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)$$
Approaching zero from the RHS we can conclude that the sine term tends to $0$ whereas the logarithmic term tends to negative infinity. Hence we are forced to establish the form $fracinftyinfty$ to use L'Hospitals rule we may rewrite the product as a fraction which fulfills the given condititons
$$begin{align*}
log(L)&=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{log(sin x)}{1/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{cot(x)}{-1cot(x)/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}-sin(x)\
log(L)&=0
end{align*}$$
$$therefore~L=1$$
$endgroup$
Using T.Bongers hint we are first of all left with the following
$$log(L)=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)$$
Approaching zero from the RHS we can conclude that the sine term tends to $0$ whereas the logarithmic term tends to negative infinity. Hence we are forced to establish the form $fracinftyinfty$ to use L'Hospitals rule we may rewrite the product as a fraction which fulfills the given condititons
$$begin{align*}
log(L)&=lim_{xto 0^+}sin(x)log(sin x)\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{log(sin x)}{1/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{cot(x)}{-1cot(x)/sin(x)}\
&=lim_{xto 0^+}-sin(x)\
log(L)&=0
end{align*}$$
$$therefore~L=1$$
answered Jan 5 at 0:55
mrtaurhomrtaurho
6,11271641
6,11271641
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Take a logarithm first, and notice that $sin x ln sin x = frac{ln sin x}{1/sin x}$ becomes $$frac{cos x / sin x}{-cos x / sin^2 x}.$$
$endgroup$
– T. Bongers
Jan 5 at 0:40
$begingroup$
As you now have it as a fraction, do i compute L'Hopitals on this?
$endgroup$
– The Statistician
Jan 5 at 0:48
1
$begingroup$
Why not get rid of $sin x$ by using $t=sin x$ and then your limit is equal to $lim_{tto 0^{+}}t^t$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Jan 5 at 12:55