Flux across the surface $x^{2} + y^{2} + z^{2} = 1$












0












$begingroup$


Let $S$ be the oriented surface $x^{2} + y^{2} + z^{2} =1$ with the unit normal $hat{n}$ pointing outward for the vector field $F = xi +yj+ zk$, the value of double integration of $vec{F} . hat{n} dS$ is -



We need to evaluate flux across the given surface, which can easily be done by gauss divergence formula and it comes out to be $4pi$.



I am trying to solve this by below method-



$int int vec{F} . hat{n} dS$
$$= int int vec{F} . frac{grad S}{ | grad S| } frac{|grad S|}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$ ( this integration is over R which is shadow region of surface S, $hat{p}$ is the unit normal vector to R)
So, flux = $$int int frac{F.grad S}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$



$$= intint frac{(xi + yj + zk).(2xi +2yj+2zk)dxdy}{|2z. hat{k}|}$$



$$= intint frac{2x^{2} + 2y^{2} + 2z^{2}}{2z} dxdy$$



$$= int int (1/z) dxdy$$
$$= int int 1/(1 - x^{2} -y^{2})^{1/2}dxdy
$$



further, this integration leads to $2pi$ which is wrong. So, where did I go wrong?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not wrong. $2pi$ is the flux over the upper half of the sphere. $4pi$ is the entire sphere.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:22












  • $begingroup$
    @Dylan why does the above integration find the flux over the upper half sphere only?
    $endgroup$
    – Mathsaddict
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Both the upper and the lower half have the same projection on the $Bbb R^2$ plane. So the projection integral is equivalent to only one half of the sphere
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's a little inconvenient to answer when you leave out the bounds of the integration when that's exactly what you're confused about. Probably putting them in would resolve your own confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Mathsaddict Why did you put a modulus around $vec{nabla S}cdothat p$?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:49


















0












$begingroup$


Let $S$ be the oriented surface $x^{2} + y^{2} + z^{2} =1$ with the unit normal $hat{n}$ pointing outward for the vector field $F = xi +yj+ zk$, the value of double integration of $vec{F} . hat{n} dS$ is -



We need to evaluate flux across the given surface, which can easily be done by gauss divergence formula and it comes out to be $4pi$.



I am trying to solve this by below method-



$int int vec{F} . hat{n} dS$
$$= int int vec{F} . frac{grad S}{ | grad S| } frac{|grad S|}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$ ( this integration is over R which is shadow region of surface S, $hat{p}$ is the unit normal vector to R)
So, flux = $$int int frac{F.grad S}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$



$$= intint frac{(xi + yj + zk).(2xi +2yj+2zk)dxdy}{|2z. hat{k}|}$$



$$= intint frac{2x^{2} + 2y^{2} + 2z^{2}}{2z} dxdy$$



$$= int int (1/z) dxdy$$
$$= int int 1/(1 - x^{2} -y^{2})^{1/2}dxdy
$$



further, this integration leads to $2pi$ which is wrong. So, where did I go wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not wrong. $2pi$ is the flux over the upper half of the sphere. $4pi$ is the entire sphere.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:22












  • $begingroup$
    @Dylan why does the above integration find the flux over the upper half sphere only?
    $endgroup$
    – Mathsaddict
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Both the upper and the lower half have the same projection on the $Bbb R^2$ plane. So the projection integral is equivalent to only one half of the sphere
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's a little inconvenient to answer when you leave out the bounds of the integration when that's exactly what you're confused about. Probably putting them in would resolve your own confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Mathsaddict Why did you put a modulus around $vec{nabla S}cdothat p$?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:49
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $S$ be the oriented surface $x^{2} + y^{2} + z^{2} =1$ with the unit normal $hat{n}$ pointing outward for the vector field $F = xi +yj+ zk$, the value of double integration of $vec{F} . hat{n} dS$ is -



We need to evaluate flux across the given surface, which can easily be done by gauss divergence formula and it comes out to be $4pi$.



I am trying to solve this by below method-



$int int vec{F} . hat{n} dS$
$$= int int vec{F} . frac{grad S}{ | grad S| } frac{|grad S|}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$ ( this integration is over R which is shadow region of surface S, $hat{p}$ is the unit normal vector to R)
So, flux = $$int int frac{F.grad S}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$



$$= intint frac{(xi + yj + zk).(2xi +2yj+2zk)dxdy}{|2z. hat{k}|}$$



$$= intint frac{2x^{2} + 2y^{2} + 2z^{2}}{2z} dxdy$$



$$= int int (1/z) dxdy$$
$$= int int 1/(1 - x^{2} -y^{2})^{1/2}dxdy
$$



further, this integration leads to $2pi$ which is wrong. So, where did I go wrong?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $S$ be the oriented surface $x^{2} + y^{2} + z^{2} =1$ with the unit normal $hat{n}$ pointing outward for the vector field $F = xi +yj+ zk$, the value of double integration of $vec{F} . hat{n} dS$ is -



We need to evaluate flux across the given surface, which can easily be done by gauss divergence formula and it comes out to be $4pi$.



I am trying to solve this by below method-



$int int vec{F} . hat{n} dS$
$$= int int vec{F} . frac{grad S}{ | grad S| } frac{|grad S|}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$ ( this integration is over R which is shadow region of surface S, $hat{p}$ is the unit normal vector to R)
So, flux = $$int int frac{F.grad S}{|grad S. hat{p}|} dA$$



$$= intint frac{(xi + yj + zk).(2xi +2yj+2zk)dxdy}{|2z. hat{k}|}$$



$$= intint frac{2x^{2} + 2y^{2} + 2z^{2}}{2z} dxdy$$



$$= int int (1/z) dxdy$$
$$= int int 1/(1 - x^{2} -y^{2})^{1/2}dxdy
$$



further, this integration leads to $2pi$ which is wrong. So, where did I go wrong?







calculus multivariable-calculus






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 23 '18 at 7:19







Mathsaddict

















asked Dec 23 '18 at 7:05









MathsaddictMathsaddict

3669




3669








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not wrong. $2pi$ is the flux over the upper half of the sphere. $4pi$ is the entire sphere.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:22












  • $begingroup$
    @Dylan why does the above integration find the flux over the upper half sphere only?
    $endgroup$
    – Mathsaddict
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Both the upper and the lower half have the same projection on the $Bbb R^2$ plane. So the projection integral is equivalent to only one half of the sphere
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's a little inconvenient to answer when you leave out the bounds of the integration when that's exactly what you're confused about. Probably putting them in would resolve your own confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Mathsaddict Why did you put a modulus around $vec{nabla S}cdothat p$?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:49
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not wrong. $2pi$ is the flux over the upper half of the sphere. $4pi$ is the entire sphere.
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:22












  • $begingroup$
    @Dylan why does the above integration find the flux over the upper half sphere only?
    $endgroup$
    – Mathsaddict
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Both the upper and the lower half have the same projection on the $Bbb R^2$ plane. So the projection integral is equivalent to only one half of the sphere
    $endgroup$
    – Dylan
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:29








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's a little inconvenient to answer when you leave out the bounds of the integration when that's exactly what you're confused about. Probably putting them in would resolve your own confusion.
    $endgroup$
    – zoidberg
    Dec 23 '18 at 7:30










  • $begingroup$
    @Mathsaddict Why did you put a modulus around $vec{nabla S}cdothat p$?
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 10:49










1




1




$begingroup$
It's not wrong. $2pi$ is the flux over the upper half of the sphere. $4pi$ is the entire sphere.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 23 '18 at 7:22






$begingroup$
It's not wrong. $2pi$ is the flux over the upper half of the sphere. $4pi$ is the entire sphere.
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 23 '18 at 7:22














$begingroup$
@Dylan why does the above integration find the flux over the upper half sphere only?
$endgroup$
– Mathsaddict
Dec 23 '18 at 7:27




$begingroup$
@Dylan why does the above integration find the flux over the upper half sphere only?
$endgroup$
– Mathsaddict
Dec 23 '18 at 7:27




1




1




$begingroup$
Both the upper and the lower half have the same projection on the $Bbb R^2$ plane. So the projection integral is equivalent to only one half of the sphere
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 23 '18 at 7:29






$begingroup$
Both the upper and the lower half have the same projection on the $Bbb R^2$ plane. So the projection integral is equivalent to only one half of the sphere
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Dec 23 '18 at 7:29






1




1




$begingroup$
It's a little inconvenient to answer when you leave out the bounds of the integration when that's exactly what you're confused about. Probably putting them in would resolve your own confusion.
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 23 '18 at 7:30




$begingroup$
It's a little inconvenient to answer when you leave out the bounds of the integration when that's exactly what you're confused about. Probably putting them in would resolve your own confusion.
$endgroup$
– zoidberg
Dec 23 '18 at 7:30












$begingroup$
@Mathsaddict Why did you put a modulus around $vec{nabla S}cdothat p$?
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 23 '18 at 10:49






$begingroup$
@Mathsaddict Why did you put a modulus around $vec{nabla S}cdothat p$?
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 23 '18 at 10:49












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Note that $vec F=xhat i+yhat j+zhat k=vec r,hat n=hat r thereforevec Fcdotvec r=r=sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=1$



$dS=rdthetacdot rsintheta dphi=r^2sintheta dtheta dphi=sintheta dtheta dphi$



$displaystylethereforeintintvec Fcdothat n dS=int_0^{2pi}int_0^{pi}sintheta dtheta dphi=4pi$.



As for your method, the flux through the upper half is $2pi$. Add to that the $2pi$ of the lower half.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    Note that $vec F=xhat i+yhat j+zhat k=vec r,hat n=hat r thereforevec Fcdotvec r=r=sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=1$



    $dS=rdthetacdot rsintheta dphi=r^2sintheta dtheta dphi=sintheta dtheta dphi$



    $displaystylethereforeintintvec Fcdothat n dS=int_0^{2pi}int_0^{pi}sintheta dtheta dphi=4pi$.



    As for your method, the flux through the upper half is $2pi$. Add to that the $2pi$ of the lower half.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Note that $vec F=xhat i+yhat j+zhat k=vec r,hat n=hat r thereforevec Fcdotvec r=r=sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=1$



      $dS=rdthetacdot rsintheta dphi=r^2sintheta dtheta dphi=sintheta dtheta dphi$



      $displaystylethereforeintintvec Fcdothat n dS=int_0^{2pi}int_0^{pi}sintheta dtheta dphi=4pi$.



      As for your method, the flux through the upper half is $2pi$. Add to that the $2pi$ of the lower half.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Note that $vec F=xhat i+yhat j+zhat k=vec r,hat n=hat r thereforevec Fcdotvec r=r=sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=1$



        $dS=rdthetacdot rsintheta dphi=r^2sintheta dtheta dphi=sintheta dtheta dphi$



        $displaystylethereforeintintvec Fcdothat n dS=int_0^{2pi}int_0^{pi}sintheta dtheta dphi=4pi$.



        As for your method, the flux through the upper half is $2pi$. Add to that the $2pi$ of the lower half.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Note that $vec F=xhat i+yhat j+zhat k=vec r,hat n=hat r thereforevec Fcdotvec r=r=sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}=1$



        $dS=rdthetacdot rsintheta dphi=r^2sintheta dtheta dphi=sintheta dtheta dphi$



        $displaystylethereforeintintvec Fcdothat n dS=int_0^{2pi}int_0^{pi}sintheta dtheta dphi=4pi$.



        As for your method, the flux through the upper half is $2pi$. Add to that the $2pi$ of the lower half.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 23 '18 at 7:24









        Shubham JohriShubham Johri

        5,204718




        5,204718






























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