Calculate complex integral $int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}d x=?$ [duplicate]












4












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Integration (Fourier transform)

    2 answers




How to calculate this elementary complex integral? This is what we would encounter if we are studying the Green's function for Schroedinger's equation.
$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}d x=?$$
However, I think there should be someone that posted similar question on Math SE, though I don't know how to search by equation.



Thank you very much if you can help me out! And I would be grateful if you can give more than one approach





P.S.: The equation $int _{-infty}^{infty}e^{-kt^2}d sqrt{k}t=sqrt{pi}$ surely comes to my mind, but I don't know why it holds for $kinmathbb{C}$, because for me, the above integral is over real line, however, the question here is like integral on $y=e^{i pi/4}x$ ( So I think it's the problem with my complex integral knowledge.)



I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$, but the two arcs at $Rrightarrow infty$ seem not easy to handle either.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Lee David Chung Lin, Song, Leucippus Feb 27 at 1:41


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Hi Collin - Welcome to MSE - in order for the community to be able to assist you, you need to provide all working you have done so far. If you are looking for a starting point, please ask - but this site is not a 'homework for free' site.
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: This is all you need to solve: $$ int_{-infty}^infty e^{-x^2}:dx = sqrt{pi}$$
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:48












  • $begingroup$
    Assuming the jump into the complex domain is valid. I always do.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 5:39


















4












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Integration (Fourier transform)

    2 answers




How to calculate this elementary complex integral? This is what we would encounter if we are studying the Green's function for Schroedinger's equation.
$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}d x=?$$
However, I think there should be someone that posted similar question on Math SE, though I don't know how to search by equation.



Thank you very much if you can help me out! And I would be grateful if you can give more than one approach





P.S.: The equation $int _{-infty}^{infty}e^{-kt^2}d sqrt{k}t=sqrt{pi}$ surely comes to my mind, but I don't know why it holds for $kinmathbb{C}$, because for me, the above integral is over real line, however, the question here is like integral on $y=e^{i pi/4}x$ ( So I think it's the problem with my complex integral knowledge.)



I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$, but the two arcs at $Rrightarrow infty$ seem not easy to handle either.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Lee David Chung Lin, Song, Leucippus Feb 27 at 1:41


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    Hi Collin - Welcome to MSE - in order for the community to be able to assist you, you need to provide all working you have done so far. If you are looking for a starting point, please ask - but this site is not a 'homework for free' site.
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: This is all you need to solve: $$ int_{-infty}^infty e^{-x^2}:dx = sqrt{pi}$$
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:48












  • $begingroup$
    Assuming the jump into the complex domain is valid. I always do.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 5:39
















4












4








4





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Integration (Fourier transform)

    2 answers




How to calculate this elementary complex integral? This is what we would encounter if we are studying the Green's function for Schroedinger's equation.
$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}d x=?$$
However, I think there should be someone that posted similar question on Math SE, though I don't know how to search by equation.



Thank you very much if you can help me out! And I would be grateful if you can give more than one approach





P.S.: The equation $int _{-infty}^{infty}e^{-kt^2}d sqrt{k}t=sqrt{pi}$ surely comes to my mind, but I don't know why it holds for $kinmathbb{C}$, because for me, the above integral is over real line, however, the question here is like integral on $y=e^{i pi/4}x$ ( So I think it's the problem with my complex integral knowledge.)



I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$, but the two arcs at $Rrightarrow infty$ seem not easy to handle either.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Integration (Fourier transform)

    2 answers




How to calculate this elementary complex integral? This is what we would encounter if we are studying the Green's function for Schroedinger's equation.
$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}d x=?$$
However, I think there should be someone that posted similar question on Math SE, though I don't know how to search by equation.



Thank you very much if you can help me out! And I would be grateful if you can give more than one approach





P.S.: The equation $int _{-infty}^{infty}e^{-kt^2}d sqrt{k}t=sqrt{pi}$ surely comes to my mind, but I don't know why it holds for $kinmathbb{C}$, because for me, the above integral is over real line, however, the question here is like integral on $y=e^{i pi/4}x$ ( So I think it's the problem with my complex integral knowledge.)



I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$, but the two arcs at $Rrightarrow infty$ seem not easy to handle either.





This question already has an answer here:




  • Integration (Fourier transform)

    2 answers








integration complex-analysis






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Feb 25 at 7:02









Andrews

1,2812422




1,2812422










asked Feb 25 at 3:31









CollinCollin

1467




1467




marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Lee David Chung Lin, Song, Leucippus Feb 27 at 1:41


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Jyrki Lahtonen, GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Lee David Chung Lin, Song, Leucippus Feb 27 at 1:41


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    Hi Collin - Welcome to MSE - in order for the community to be able to assist you, you need to provide all working you have done so far. If you are looking for a starting point, please ask - but this site is not a 'homework for free' site.
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: This is all you need to solve: $$ int_{-infty}^infty e^{-x^2}:dx = sqrt{pi}$$
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:48












  • $begingroup$
    Assuming the jump into the complex domain is valid. I always do.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 5:39




















  • $begingroup$
    Hi Collin - Welcome to MSE - in order for the community to be able to assist you, you need to provide all working you have done so far. If you are looking for a starting point, please ask - but this site is not a 'homework for free' site.
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:46






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: This is all you need to solve: $$ int_{-infty}^infty e^{-x^2}:dx = sqrt{pi}$$
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 3:48












  • $begingroup$
    Assuming the jump into the complex domain is valid. I always do.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 5:39


















$begingroup$
Hi Collin - Welcome to MSE - in order for the community to be able to assist you, you need to provide all working you have done so far. If you are looking for a starting point, please ask - but this site is not a 'homework for free' site.
$endgroup$
– user150203
Feb 25 at 3:46




$begingroup$
Hi Collin - Welcome to MSE - in order for the community to be able to assist you, you need to provide all working you have done so far. If you are looking for a starting point, please ask - but this site is not a 'homework for free' site.
$endgroup$
– user150203
Feb 25 at 3:46




1




1




$begingroup$
Hint: This is all you need to solve: $$ int_{-infty}^infty e^{-x^2}:dx = sqrt{pi}$$
$endgroup$
– user150203
Feb 25 at 3:48






$begingroup$
Hint: This is all you need to solve: $$ int_{-infty}^infty e^{-x^2}:dx = sqrt{pi}$$
$endgroup$
– user150203
Feb 25 at 3:48














$begingroup$
Assuming the jump into the complex domain is valid. I always do.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Feb 25 at 5:39






$begingroup$
Assuming the jump into the complex domain is valid. I always do.
$endgroup$
– marty cohen
Feb 25 at 5:39












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Trying to avoid complex funniness.



$begin{array}\
int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}dx
&=int_{-infty}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
&=2int_{0}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
&=2int_{0}^infty cos(x^2)dx-2iint_{0}^inftysin(x^2))dx\
end{array}
$



and these are the
Fresnel integrals
$C(x)$ and $S(x)$
both of which approach
$dfrac{sqrt{pi}}{8}
$

as $x to infty$.



Therefore the result is
$(1-i)sqrt{frac{pi}{2}}
$

as Claude Leibovici
got.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 9:41










  • $begingroup$
    By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 14:20










  • $begingroup$
    Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Feb 26 at 3:21



















6












$begingroup$

Hint
$$int e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi } }{2 sqrt{k}},text{erf}left(sqrt{k} xright)$$
$$f(k)=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{k}}$$
$$f(i)=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{i}}=(1-i) sqrt{frac{pi }{2}}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
    $endgroup$
    – Collin
    Feb 25 at 6:01












  • $begingroup$
    @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Feb 25 at 6:24












  • $begingroup$
    @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
    $endgroup$
    – Collin
    Feb 25 at 19:57










  • $begingroup$
    See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 26 at 0:03



















2












$begingroup$

Hint:$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-kx^2}dx=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-left(xsqrt kright)^2}dx$$
Use the $u$-substution $u=xsqrt k$ and this transforms the integral into the form given in DavidG's suggestion. Can you take it from here?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    Trying to avoid complex funniness.



    $begin{array}\
    int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}dx
    &=int_{-infty}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty cos(x^2)dx-2iint_{0}^inftysin(x^2))dx\
    end{array}
    $



    and these are the
    Fresnel integrals
    $C(x)$ and $S(x)$
    both of which approach
    $dfrac{sqrt{pi}}{8}
    $

    as $x to infty$.



    Therefore the result is
    $(1-i)sqrt{frac{pi}{2}}
    $

    as Claude Leibovici
    got.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
      $endgroup$
      – user150203
      Feb 25 at 9:41










    • $begingroup$
      By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 25 at 14:20










    • $begingroup$
      Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Feb 26 at 3:21
















    5












    $begingroup$

    Trying to avoid complex funniness.



    $begin{array}\
    int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}dx
    &=int_{-infty}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty cos(x^2)dx-2iint_{0}^inftysin(x^2))dx\
    end{array}
    $



    and these are the
    Fresnel integrals
    $C(x)$ and $S(x)$
    both of which approach
    $dfrac{sqrt{pi}}{8}
    $

    as $x to infty$.



    Therefore the result is
    $(1-i)sqrt{frac{pi}{2}}
    $

    as Claude Leibovici
    got.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
      $endgroup$
      – user150203
      Feb 25 at 9:41










    • $begingroup$
      By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 25 at 14:20










    • $begingroup$
      Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Feb 26 at 3:21














    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    Trying to avoid complex funniness.



    $begin{array}\
    int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}dx
    &=int_{-infty}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty cos(x^2)dx-2iint_{0}^inftysin(x^2))dx\
    end{array}
    $



    and these are the
    Fresnel integrals
    $C(x)$ and $S(x)$
    both of which approach
    $dfrac{sqrt{pi}}{8}
    $

    as $x to infty$.



    Therefore the result is
    $(1-i)sqrt{frac{pi}{2}}
    $

    as Claude Leibovici
    got.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Trying to avoid complex funniness.



    $begin{array}\
    int_{-infty}^infty e^{-ix^2}dx
    &=int_{-infty}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty (cos(x^2)-isin(x^2))dx\
    &=2int_{0}^infty cos(x^2)dx-2iint_{0}^inftysin(x^2))dx\
    end{array}
    $



    and these are the
    Fresnel integrals
    $C(x)$ and $S(x)$
    both of which approach
    $dfrac{sqrt{pi}}{8}
    $

    as $x to infty$.



    Therefore the result is
    $(1-i)sqrt{frac{pi}{2}}
    $

    as Claude Leibovici
    got.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Feb 25 at 5:38









    marty cohenmarty cohen

    74.9k549130




    74.9k549130












    • $begingroup$
      How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
      $endgroup$
      – user150203
      Feb 25 at 9:41










    • $begingroup$
      By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 25 at 14:20










    • $begingroup$
      Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Feb 26 at 3:21


















    • $begingroup$
      How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
      $endgroup$
      – user150203
      Feb 25 at 9:41










    • $begingroup$
      By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 25 at 14:20










    • $begingroup$
      Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Claude Leibovici
      Feb 26 at 3:21
















    $begingroup$
    How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 9:41




    $begingroup$
    How did you avoid 'complexness' in this solution? :-)
    $endgroup$
    – user150203
    Feb 25 at 9:41












    $begingroup$
    By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 14:20




    $begingroup$
    By not letting $k$ be complex in. $int e^{-kx^2} dx$ when the result had only been proven for real $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 25 at 14:20












    $begingroup$
    Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Feb 26 at 3:21




    $begingroup$
    Good way to avoid any further discussion about the complex ! Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Feb 26 at 3:21











    6












    $begingroup$

    Hint
    $$int e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi } }{2 sqrt{k}},text{erf}left(sqrt{k} xright)$$
    $$f(k)=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{k}}$$
    $$f(i)=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{i}}=(1-i) sqrt{frac{pi }{2}}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 6:01












    • $begingroup$
      @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      Feb 25 at 6:24












    • $begingroup$
      @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 19:57










    • $begingroup$
      See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 26 at 0:03
















    6












    $begingroup$

    Hint
    $$int e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi } }{2 sqrt{k}},text{erf}left(sqrt{k} xright)$$
    $$f(k)=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{k}}$$
    $$f(i)=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{i}}=(1-i) sqrt{frac{pi }{2}}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 6:01












    • $begingroup$
      @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      Feb 25 at 6:24












    • $begingroup$
      @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 19:57










    • $begingroup$
      See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 26 at 0:03














    6












    6








    6





    $begingroup$

    Hint
    $$int e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi } }{2 sqrt{k}},text{erf}left(sqrt{k} xright)$$
    $$f(k)=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{k}}$$
    $$f(i)=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{i}}=(1-i) sqrt{frac{pi }{2}}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    Hint
    $$int e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi } }{2 sqrt{k}},text{erf}left(sqrt{k} xright)$$
    $$f(k)=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-k x^2},dx=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{k}}$$
    $$f(i)=frac{sqrt{pi }}{sqrt{i}}=(1-i) sqrt{frac{pi }{2}}$$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Feb 25 at 4:52









    Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici

    125k1158135




    125k1158135












    • $begingroup$
      Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 6:01












    • $begingroup$
      @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      Feb 25 at 6:24












    • $begingroup$
      @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 19:57










    • $begingroup$
      See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 26 at 0:03


















    • $begingroup$
      Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 6:01












    • $begingroup$
      @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
      $endgroup$
      – Sangchul Lee
      Feb 25 at 6:24












    • $begingroup$
      @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
      $endgroup$
      – Collin
      Feb 25 at 19:57










    • $begingroup$
      See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
      $endgroup$
      – marty cohen
      Feb 26 at 0:03
















    $begingroup$
    Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
    $endgroup$
    – Collin
    Feb 25 at 6:01






    $begingroup$
    Hi! I think it's because I'm not familiar with complex integral; so how can you guys play so freely on the $mathbb{C}$ plane, without worrying much? The very reason I ask this is because I don't know why your second equation holds for k being a complex number. I tried to rotate this integral path by $pi/4$ on the complex plane, but the two arcs at $|x|rightarrow infty$ seem not trying to vanish.
    $endgroup$
    – Collin
    Feb 25 at 6:01














    $begingroup$
    @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Feb 25 at 6:24






    $begingroup$
    @Collin, The reasoning behind this 'extrapolation' is that $f$ defines a holomorphic function on the right half-plane $H={k:operatorname{Re}(k) > 0}$ and a continuous function on $overline{H}setminus{0} = {k : operatorname{Re}(k) geq 0, k neq 0 }$. Now, in view of identity theorem, if you can identify another holomorphic function $g$ on $H$ such that $f = g$ on $(0,infty)$, then $f = g$ on all of $H$ as well. We can check that this argument works with $g(k)=sqrt{pi/k}$, and so, $f = g$ on $H$ by identity theorem and on all of $overline{H}setminus{0}$ by continuity.
    $endgroup$
    – Sangchul Lee
    Feb 25 at 6:24














    $begingroup$
    @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
    $endgroup$
    – Collin
    Feb 25 at 19:57




    $begingroup$
    @SangchulLee Hi! So this is the material covered by complex analysis? I have encountered many times similar problems when doing complex integral. As a physicist, complex analysis is only usually covered by Math-physics course within a chapter.
    $endgroup$
    – Collin
    Feb 25 at 19:57












    $begingroup$
    See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 26 at 0:03




    $begingroup$
    See my answer that purposely avoids this problem.
    $endgroup$
    – marty cohen
    Feb 26 at 0:03











    2












    $begingroup$

    Hint:$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-kx^2}dx=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-left(xsqrt kright)^2}dx$$
    Use the $u$-substution $u=xsqrt k$ and this transforms the integral into the form given in DavidG's suggestion. Can you take it from here?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      Hint:$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-kx^2}dx=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-left(xsqrt kright)^2}dx$$
      Use the $u$-substution $u=xsqrt k$ and this transforms the integral into the form given in DavidG's suggestion. Can you take it from here?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        Hint:$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-kx^2}dx=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-left(xsqrt kright)^2}dx$$
        Use the $u$-substution $u=xsqrt k$ and this transforms the integral into the form given in DavidG's suggestion. Can you take it from here?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Hint:$$int_{-infty}^infty e^{-kx^2}dx=int_{-infty}^infty e^{-left(xsqrt kright)^2}dx$$
        Use the $u$-substution $u=xsqrt k$ and this transforms the integral into the form given in DavidG's suggestion. Can you take it from here?







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Feb 25 at 5:35









        csch2csch2

        6131314




        6131314















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