Picard iteration for second order ODE
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Any help for the following two questions will be much appreciated:
Question 1:
Consder the ODE with IVP
$y''(t)+g(t,y)=0, y(0)=y_0, y'(0)=z_0$
where g is continues on some region $D$, $(0,y_0)in D$. I want to show that this is equivalent to the integral equation
$ begin{align}
y(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
end{align}
\
$
This is what I have done so far to solve this: I integra either side and get
$ int_0^t y''(s) ds =-int_0^t g(s,f(s)) ds$ I calculate this, integrate again and get
$y(s)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t int_0^t g(s,f(s))ds$. My problem is that I don't know what to do with this last double integral.
Question 2:
Consider the same integral equation where $g(y,t)$, $frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y)$ are continuous on the rectangle $D={ (t,y)in mathbb{R}^2 : mid t mid leq a, mid y-y_0 mid leq b}$. Let $mid g(t,y) mid leq M$, $mid frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y) mid leq K$ for all $(t,y) in D$. We define $phi_0(t)=y_0$ and
$
phi_n(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
$
I want to show that $phi_n(t)$ is well defiend for $mid tmid leq min {a,frac{2b}{2mid z_0mid+2M}}$. Here I am quite lost. To show it is well-defined I need to show that the integral is never infinity. But I don't know how to prove this.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Any help for the following two questions will be much appreciated:
Question 1:
Consder the ODE with IVP
$y''(t)+g(t,y)=0, y(0)=y_0, y'(0)=z_0$
where g is continues on some region $D$, $(0,y_0)in D$. I want to show that this is equivalent to the integral equation
$ begin{align}
y(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
end{align}
\
$
This is what I have done so far to solve this: I integra either side and get
$ int_0^t y''(s) ds =-int_0^t g(s,f(s)) ds$ I calculate this, integrate again and get
$y(s)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t int_0^t g(s,f(s))ds$. My problem is that I don't know what to do with this last double integral.
Question 2:
Consider the same integral equation where $g(y,t)$, $frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y)$ are continuous on the rectangle $D={ (t,y)in mathbb{R}^2 : mid t mid leq a, mid y-y_0 mid leq b}$. Let $mid g(t,y) mid leq M$, $mid frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y) mid leq K$ for all $(t,y) in D$. We define $phi_0(t)=y_0$ and
$
phi_n(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
$
I want to show that $phi_n(t)$ is well defiend for $mid tmid leq min {a,frac{2b}{2mid z_0mid+2M}}$. Here I am quite lost. To show it is well-defined I need to show that the integral is never infinity. But I don't know how to prove this.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How come you have not got an answer yet!
$endgroup$
– Mhenni Benghorbal
Feb 13 '16 at 23:32
$begingroup$
I don't know, hopefully some kind soul will come by soon.
$endgroup$
– Soren123
Feb 14 '16 at 8:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Any help for the following two questions will be much appreciated:
Question 1:
Consder the ODE with IVP
$y''(t)+g(t,y)=0, y(0)=y_0, y'(0)=z_0$
where g is continues on some region $D$, $(0,y_0)in D$. I want to show that this is equivalent to the integral equation
$ begin{align}
y(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
end{align}
\
$
This is what I have done so far to solve this: I integra either side and get
$ int_0^t y''(s) ds =-int_0^t g(s,f(s)) ds$ I calculate this, integrate again and get
$y(s)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t int_0^t g(s,f(s))ds$. My problem is that I don't know what to do with this last double integral.
Question 2:
Consider the same integral equation where $g(y,t)$, $frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y)$ are continuous on the rectangle $D={ (t,y)in mathbb{R}^2 : mid t mid leq a, mid y-y_0 mid leq b}$. Let $mid g(t,y) mid leq M$, $mid frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y) mid leq K$ for all $(t,y) in D$. We define $phi_0(t)=y_0$ and
$
phi_n(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
$
I want to show that $phi_n(t)$ is well defiend for $mid tmid leq min {a,frac{2b}{2mid z_0mid+2M}}$. Here I am quite lost. To show it is well-defined I need to show that the integral is never infinity. But I don't know how to prove this.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
$endgroup$
Any help for the following two questions will be much appreciated:
Question 1:
Consder the ODE with IVP
$y''(t)+g(t,y)=0, y(0)=y_0, y'(0)=z_0$
where g is continues on some region $D$, $(0,y_0)in D$. I want to show that this is equivalent to the integral equation
$ begin{align}
y(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
end{align}
\
$
This is what I have done so far to solve this: I integra either side and get
$ int_0^t y''(s) ds =-int_0^t g(s,f(s)) ds$ I calculate this, integrate again and get
$y(s)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t int_0^t g(s,f(s))ds$. My problem is that I don't know what to do with this last double integral.
Question 2:
Consider the same integral equation where $g(y,t)$, $frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y)$ are continuous on the rectangle $D={ (t,y)in mathbb{R}^2 : mid t mid leq a, mid y-y_0 mid leq b}$. Let $mid g(t,y) mid leq M$, $mid frac{partial g}{ partial y} (t,y) mid leq K$ for all $(t,y) in D$. We define $phi_0(t)=y_0$ and
$
phi_n(t)=y_0+z_0t-int_0^t (t-s)g(s,y(s))ds
$
I want to show that $phi_n(t)$ is well defiend for $mid tmid leq min {a,frac{2b}{2mid z_0mid+2M}}$. Here I am quite lost. To show it is well-defined I need to show that the integral is never infinity. But I don't know how to prove this.
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations
edited Feb 14 '16 at 7:59
Soren123
asked Feb 13 '16 at 20:27
Soren123Soren123
9311
9311
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How come you have not got an answer yet!
$endgroup$
– Mhenni Benghorbal
Feb 13 '16 at 23:32
$begingroup$
I don't know, hopefully some kind soul will come by soon.
$endgroup$
– Soren123
Feb 14 '16 at 8:00
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How come you have not got an answer yet!
$endgroup$
– Mhenni Benghorbal
Feb 13 '16 at 23:32
$begingroup$
I don't know, hopefully some kind soul will come by soon.
$endgroup$
– Soren123
Feb 14 '16 at 8:00
$begingroup$
How come you have not got an answer yet!
$endgroup$
– Mhenni Benghorbal
Feb 13 '16 at 23:32
$begingroup$
How come you have not got an answer yet!
$endgroup$
– Mhenni Benghorbal
Feb 13 '16 at 23:32
$begingroup$
I don't know, hopefully some kind soul will come by soon.
$endgroup$
– Soren123
Feb 14 '16 at 8:00
$begingroup$
I don't know, hopefully some kind soul will come by soon.
$endgroup$
– Soren123
Feb 14 '16 at 8:00
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
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Try showing $r_j(t)=|phi_{j+1}(t)-phi_j(t)| leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{j}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$.
If K<1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$
If K>1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{2j+1}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$ which are the terms of hyperbolic sin function, which converges.
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add a comment |
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1 Answer
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active
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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active
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$begingroup$
Try showing $r_j(t)=|phi_{j+1}(t)-phi_j(t)| leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{j}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$.
If K<1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$
If K>1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{2j+1}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$ which are the terms of hyperbolic sin function, which converges.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try showing $r_j(t)=|phi_{j+1}(t)-phi_j(t)| leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{j}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$.
If K<1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$
If K>1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{2j+1}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$ which are the terms of hyperbolic sin function, which converges.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try showing $r_j(t)=|phi_{j+1}(t)-phi_j(t)| leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{j}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$.
If K<1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$
If K>1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{2j+1}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$ which are the terms of hyperbolic sin function, which converges.
$endgroup$
Try showing $r_j(t)=|phi_{j+1}(t)-phi_j(t)| leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{j}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$.
If K<1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$
If K>1, then $r_j(t) leq frac{M(|z_0|+frac{Ma}{2})K^{2j+1}t^{2j+1}}{(2j+1)!}$ which are the terms of hyperbolic sin function, which converges.
answered Dec 9 '18 at 0:42
JungleshrimpJungleshrimp
314111
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How come you have not got an answer yet!
$endgroup$
– Mhenni Benghorbal
Feb 13 '16 at 23:32
$begingroup$
I don't know, hopefully some kind soul will come by soon.
$endgroup$
– Soren123
Feb 14 '16 at 8:00