Is $V = {(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) | a,binmathbb{R}}$ a subspace of $mathbb{R}^2$? Why or why not?












1












$begingroup$


I am studying for a linear algebra final and going over the first exam. I just now retried this problem and I am making the same mistake I did the first time. I get that the set in NOT a subspace, but that is incorrect. Here is how I came to this conclusion:



Closure under addition fails:



Let $(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b), (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') in V$.



Then $$(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) + (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') = ( (a + a') + 2(b + b') + 2, 2(a-a') - 3(b-b') ).$$



This does not look like it would belong in the set V, because the x coordinate has 2 added to 2, not 1.



Also, closure under scalar multiplication fails:



Let $alpha in mathbb{R}$. Then $alpha(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) = (alpha a + alpha 2b) + alpha, alpha (2a -3b) )$. Once again, since $alpha$ is being added to the x coordinate instead of 1, I thought it would not belong in the set V.



However, apparently, both of these conclusions are incorrect. If someone could explain why my work is incorrect, I would be very appreciative.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You made the error of assuming addition (and multiplication) has to have a certain effect on the $a,b$. Instead you should genuinely try to solve for $a'',b''$ such that ...
    $endgroup$
    – user10354138
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:04












  • $begingroup$
    As to the original question, Hint: show that every $(x,y)in mathbb R^2$ is in $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:05


















1












$begingroup$


I am studying for a linear algebra final and going over the first exam. I just now retried this problem and I am making the same mistake I did the first time. I get that the set in NOT a subspace, but that is incorrect. Here is how I came to this conclusion:



Closure under addition fails:



Let $(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b), (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') in V$.



Then $$(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) + (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') = ( (a + a') + 2(b + b') + 2, 2(a-a') - 3(b-b') ).$$



This does not look like it would belong in the set V, because the x coordinate has 2 added to 2, not 1.



Also, closure under scalar multiplication fails:



Let $alpha in mathbb{R}$. Then $alpha(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) = (alpha a + alpha 2b) + alpha, alpha (2a -3b) )$. Once again, since $alpha$ is being added to the x coordinate instead of 1, I thought it would not belong in the set V.



However, apparently, both of these conclusions are incorrect. If someone could explain why my work is incorrect, I would be very appreciative.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You made the error of assuming addition (and multiplication) has to have a certain effect on the $a,b$. Instead you should genuinely try to solve for $a'',b''$ such that ...
    $endgroup$
    – user10354138
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:04












  • $begingroup$
    As to the original question, Hint: show that every $(x,y)in mathbb R^2$ is in $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:05
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


I am studying for a linear algebra final and going over the first exam. I just now retried this problem and I am making the same mistake I did the first time. I get that the set in NOT a subspace, but that is incorrect. Here is how I came to this conclusion:



Closure under addition fails:



Let $(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b), (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') in V$.



Then $$(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) + (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') = ( (a + a') + 2(b + b') + 2, 2(a-a') - 3(b-b') ).$$



This does not look like it would belong in the set V, because the x coordinate has 2 added to 2, not 1.



Also, closure under scalar multiplication fails:



Let $alpha in mathbb{R}$. Then $alpha(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) = (alpha a + alpha 2b) + alpha, alpha (2a -3b) )$. Once again, since $alpha$ is being added to the x coordinate instead of 1, I thought it would not belong in the set V.



However, apparently, both of these conclusions are incorrect. If someone could explain why my work is incorrect, I would be very appreciative.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am studying for a linear algebra final and going over the first exam. I just now retried this problem and I am making the same mistake I did the first time. I get that the set in NOT a subspace, but that is incorrect. Here is how I came to this conclusion:



Closure under addition fails:



Let $(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b), (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') in V$.



Then $$(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) + (a' + 2b' + 1, 2a'-3b') = ( (a + a') + 2(b + b') + 2, 2(a-a') - 3(b-b') ).$$



This does not look like it would belong in the set V, because the x coordinate has 2 added to 2, not 1.



Also, closure under scalar multiplication fails:



Let $alpha in mathbb{R}$. Then $alpha(a + 2b + 1, 2a-3b) = (alpha a + alpha 2b) + alpha, alpha (2a -3b) )$. Once again, since $alpha$ is being added to the x coordinate instead of 1, I thought it would not belong in the set V.



However, apparently, both of these conclusions are incorrect. If someone could explain why my work is incorrect, I would be very appreciative.







linear-algebra vector-spaces






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edited Dec 12 '18 at 18:32









Shaun

9,183113683




9,183113683










asked Dec 12 '18 at 17:59









MariMari

264




264








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You made the error of assuming addition (and multiplication) has to have a certain effect on the $a,b$. Instead you should genuinely try to solve for $a'',b''$ such that ...
    $endgroup$
    – user10354138
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:04












  • $begingroup$
    As to the original question, Hint: show that every $(x,y)in mathbb R^2$ is in $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:05
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You made the error of assuming addition (and multiplication) has to have a certain effect on the $a,b$. Instead you should genuinely try to solve for $a'',b''$ such that ...
    $endgroup$
    – user10354138
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:04












  • $begingroup$
    As to the original question, Hint: show that every $(x,y)in mathbb R^2$ is in $V$.
    $endgroup$
    – lulu
    Dec 12 '18 at 18:05










1




1




$begingroup$
You made the error of assuming addition (and multiplication) has to have a certain effect on the $a,b$. Instead you should genuinely try to solve for $a'',b''$ such that ...
$endgroup$
– user10354138
Dec 12 '18 at 18:04






$begingroup$
You made the error of assuming addition (and multiplication) has to have a certain effect on the $a,b$. Instead you should genuinely try to solve for $a'',b''$ such that ...
$endgroup$
– user10354138
Dec 12 '18 at 18:04














$begingroup$
As to the original question, Hint: show that every $(x,y)in mathbb R^2$ is in $V$.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Dec 12 '18 at 18:05






$begingroup$
As to the original question, Hint: show that every $(x,y)in mathbb R^2$ is in $V$.
$endgroup$
– lulu
Dec 12 '18 at 18:05












2 Answers
2






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$begingroup$

The flaw in your reasoning is as follows:



Suppose we are given $W={(a+1,b+2) , | , a,b in Bbb{R}}$ and are asked the same question: is $W$ a subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$? Following your reasoning, we will consider $u=(e+1,f+2) in W$ and $v=(c+1,d+2) in W$ and conclude that
$$u+v=(e+c+2, f+d+4).$$
From this, you may incorrectly conclude that this does not look like vectors in $W$ because the first component $e+c+2$ is not of the form $color{blue}{a+1}$ (because we have a $2$ and not $1$) and the second component $f+d+4$ is not of the form $color{red}{b+2}$ (because we have a $4$ and not $2$). This is where your reasoning had a flaw because we can write
begin{align*}
e+c+2 & = (e+c+1)+1\
f+d+4 & = (f+d+2)+2.
end{align*}



Since $(e+c+1)$ and $(f+d+2)$ are both real numbers, so the two components still satisfies the membership criterion of $W$. Hence the sum of the vectors is still in $W$.





Coming to your original question:
Any vector in $V$ can be written as
$$begin{bmatrix}a+2b+1\2a-3bend{bmatrix}=abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}.$$
Observe that $abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}$ is nothing but linear combination of two linearly independent vectors in $Bbb{R}^2$, hence this span is $Bbb{R}^2$. So all we are doing is taking any vector in $Bbb{R}^2$ and translating it by the vector $begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}$, which is still $Bbb{R}^2$.



Thus $V=Bbb{R}^2$, hence a (trivial) subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$.






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    0












    $begingroup$

    As a hint, if
    $$begin{pmatrix}a+2b+1\ 2a-3bend{pmatrix}=Abegin{pmatrix}a\ bend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}x_0\ y_0end{pmatrix}$$
    then what is the matrix $A$? Is it invertible?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






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      active

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      1












      $begingroup$

      The flaw in your reasoning is as follows:



      Suppose we are given $W={(a+1,b+2) , | , a,b in Bbb{R}}$ and are asked the same question: is $W$ a subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$? Following your reasoning, we will consider $u=(e+1,f+2) in W$ and $v=(c+1,d+2) in W$ and conclude that
      $$u+v=(e+c+2, f+d+4).$$
      From this, you may incorrectly conclude that this does not look like vectors in $W$ because the first component $e+c+2$ is not of the form $color{blue}{a+1}$ (because we have a $2$ and not $1$) and the second component $f+d+4$ is not of the form $color{red}{b+2}$ (because we have a $4$ and not $2$). This is where your reasoning had a flaw because we can write
      begin{align*}
      e+c+2 & = (e+c+1)+1\
      f+d+4 & = (f+d+2)+2.
      end{align*}



      Since $(e+c+1)$ and $(f+d+2)$ are both real numbers, so the two components still satisfies the membership criterion of $W$. Hence the sum of the vectors is still in $W$.





      Coming to your original question:
      Any vector in $V$ can be written as
      $$begin{bmatrix}a+2b+1\2a-3bend{bmatrix}=abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}.$$
      Observe that $abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}$ is nothing but linear combination of two linearly independent vectors in $Bbb{R}^2$, hence this span is $Bbb{R}^2$. So all we are doing is taking any vector in $Bbb{R}^2$ and translating it by the vector $begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}$, which is still $Bbb{R}^2$.



      Thus $V=Bbb{R}^2$, hence a (trivial) subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        The flaw in your reasoning is as follows:



        Suppose we are given $W={(a+1,b+2) , | , a,b in Bbb{R}}$ and are asked the same question: is $W$ a subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$? Following your reasoning, we will consider $u=(e+1,f+2) in W$ and $v=(c+1,d+2) in W$ and conclude that
        $$u+v=(e+c+2, f+d+4).$$
        From this, you may incorrectly conclude that this does not look like vectors in $W$ because the first component $e+c+2$ is not of the form $color{blue}{a+1}$ (because we have a $2$ and not $1$) and the second component $f+d+4$ is not of the form $color{red}{b+2}$ (because we have a $4$ and not $2$). This is where your reasoning had a flaw because we can write
        begin{align*}
        e+c+2 & = (e+c+1)+1\
        f+d+4 & = (f+d+2)+2.
        end{align*}



        Since $(e+c+1)$ and $(f+d+2)$ are both real numbers, so the two components still satisfies the membership criterion of $W$. Hence the sum of the vectors is still in $W$.





        Coming to your original question:
        Any vector in $V$ can be written as
        $$begin{bmatrix}a+2b+1\2a-3bend{bmatrix}=abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}.$$
        Observe that $abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}$ is nothing but linear combination of two linearly independent vectors in $Bbb{R}^2$, hence this span is $Bbb{R}^2$. So all we are doing is taking any vector in $Bbb{R}^2$ and translating it by the vector $begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}$, which is still $Bbb{R}^2$.



        Thus $V=Bbb{R}^2$, hence a (trivial) subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          The flaw in your reasoning is as follows:



          Suppose we are given $W={(a+1,b+2) , | , a,b in Bbb{R}}$ and are asked the same question: is $W$ a subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$? Following your reasoning, we will consider $u=(e+1,f+2) in W$ and $v=(c+1,d+2) in W$ and conclude that
          $$u+v=(e+c+2, f+d+4).$$
          From this, you may incorrectly conclude that this does not look like vectors in $W$ because the first component $e+c+2$ is not of the form $color{blue}{a+1}$ (because we have a $2$ and not $1$) and the second component $f+d+4$ is not of the form $color{red}{b+2}$ (because we have a $4$ and not $2$). This is where your reasoning had a flaw because we can write
          begin{align*}
          e+c+2 & = (e+c+1)+1\
          f+d+4 & = (f+d+2)+2.
          end{align*}



          Since $(e+c+1)$ and $(f+d+2)$ are both real numbers, so the two components still satisfies the membership criterion of $W$. Hence the sum of the vectors is still in $W$.





          Coming to your original question:
          Any vector in $V$ can be written as
          $$begin{bmatrix}a+2b+1\2a-3bend{bmatrix}=abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}.$$
          Observe that $abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}$ is nothing but linear combination of two linearly independent vectors in $Bbb{R}^2$, hence this span is $Bbb{R}^2$. So all we are doing is taking any vector in $Bbb{R}^2$ and translating it by the vector $begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}$, which is still $Bbb{R}^2$.



          Thus $V=Bbb{R}^2$, hence a (trivial) subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The flaw in your reasoning is as follows:



          Suppose we are given $W={(a+1,b+2) , | , a,b in Bbb{R}}$ and are asked the same question: is $W$ a subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$? Following your reasoning, we will consider $u=(e+1,f+2) in W$ and $v=(c+1,d+2) in W$ and conclude that
          $$u+v=(e+c+2, f+d+4).$$
          From this, you may incorrectly conclude that this does not look like vectors in $W$ because the first component $e+c+2$ is not of the form $color{blue}{a+1}$ (because we have a $2$ and not $1$) and the second component $f+d+4$ is not of the form $color{red}{b+2}$ (because we have a $4$ and not $2$). This is where your reasoning had a flaw because we can write
          begin{align*}
          e+c+2 & = (e+c+1)+1\
          f+d+4 & = (f+d+2)+2.
          end{align*}



          Since $(e+c+1)$ and $(f+d+2)$ are both real numbers, so the two components still satisfies the membership criterion of $W$. Hence the sum of the vectors is still in $W$.





          Coming to your original question:
          Any vector in $V$ can be written as
          $$begin{bmatrix}a+2b+1\2a-3bend{bmatrix}=abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}+begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}.$$
          Observe that $abegin{bmatrix}1\2end{bmatrix}+bbegin{bmatrix}2\-3end{bmatrix}$ is nothing but linear combination of two linearly independent vectors in $Bbb{R}^2$, hence this span is $Bbb{R}^2$. So all we are doing is taking any vector in $Bbb{R}^2$ and translating it by the vector $begin{bmatrix}1\0end{bmatrix}$, which is still $Bbb{R}^2$.



          Thus $V=Bbb{R}^2$, hence a (trivial) subspace of $Bbb{R}^2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 12 '18 at 18:32









          Anurag AAnurag A

          26.2k12251




          26.2k12251























              0












              $begingroup$

              As a hint, if
              $$begin{pmatrix}a+2b+1\ 2a-3bend{pmatrix}=Abegin{pmatrix}a\ bend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}x_0\ y_0end{pmatrix}$$
              then what is the matrix $A$? Is it invertible?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                As a hint, if
                $$begin{pmatrix}a+2b+1\ 2a-3bend{pmatrix}=Abegin{pmatrix}a\ bend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}x_0\ y_0end{pmatrix}$$
                then what is the matrix $A$? Is it invertible?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  As a hint, if
                  $$begin{pmatrix}a+2b+1\ 2a-3bend{pmatrix}=Abegin{pmatrix}a\ bend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}x_0\ y_0end{pmatrix}$$
                  then what is the matrix $A$? Is it invertible?






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  As a hint, if
                  $$begin{pmatrix}a+2b+1\ 2a-3bend{pmatrix}=Abegin{pmatrix}a\ bend{pmatrix}+begin{pmatrix}x_0\ y_0end{pmatrix}$$
                  then what is the matrix $A$? Is it invertible?







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 12 '18 at 18:18









                  Bjørn Kjos-HanssenBjørn Kjos-Hanssen

                  2,086918




                  2,086918






























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