Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are continuous functions on $[a,b]$, prove...












0














Not sure what to use here, would like some help. Thank you. These are Riemann integrals also.



My finished proof:



Since $f$ and $g$ are both continuous on $[a,b]$ then we have that $f$ and $g$ are both integrable on $[a,b]$. Using the proofs that $f^2,g^2,-2fg$ are all integrable on $[a,b]$ we have that $(f-g)^2$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ and that $(f-g)^2ge0$ implies:



$int_a^b(f-g)^2=int_a^bf^2+g^2-2fg=int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2-int_a^b2fgge0$



therefore,



$int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2geint_a^b2fg$



hence,



$frac{1}{2}(int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2)geint_a^bfg$












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  • 1




    This is a version of what's called the "AM-GM" inequality, in case you didn't know.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 '18 at 23:07
















0














Not sure what to use here, would like some help. Thank you. These are Riemann integrals also.



My finished proof:



Since $f$ and $g$ are both continuous on $[a,b]$ then we have that $f$ and $g$ are both integrable on $[a,b]$. Using the proofs that $f^2,g^2,-2fg$ are all integrable on $[a,b]$ we have that $(f-g)^2$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ and that $(f-g)^2ge0$ implies:



$int_a^b(f-g)^2=int_a^bf^2+g^2-2fg=int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2-int_a^b2fgge0$



therefore,



$int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2geint_a^b2fg$



hence,



$frac{1}{2}(int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2)geint_a^bfg$












share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    This is a version of what's called the "AM-GM" inequality, in case you didn't know.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 '18 at 23:07














0












0








0







Not sure what to use here, would like some help. Thank you. These are Riemann integrals also.



My finished proof:



Since $f$ and $g$ are both continuous on $[a,b]$ then we have that $f$ and $g$ are both integrable on $[a,b]$. Using the proofs that $f^2,g^2,-2fg$ are all integrable on $[a,b]$ we have that $(f-g)^2$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ and that $(f-g)^2ge0$ implies:



$int_a^b(f-g)^2=int_a^bf^2+g^2-2fg=int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2-int_a^b2fgge0$



therefore,



$int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2geint_a^b2fg$



hence,



$frac{1}{2}(int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2)geint_a^bfg$












share|cite|improve this question















Not sure what to use here, would like some help. Thank you. These are Riemann integrals also.



My finished proof:



Since $f$ and $g$ are both continuous on $[a,b]$ then we have that $f$ and $g$ are both integrable on $[a,b]$. Using the proofs that $f^2,g^2,-2fg$ are all integrable on $[a,b]$ we have that $(f-g)^2$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ and that $(f-g)^2ge0$ implies:



$int_a^b(f-g)^2=int_a^bf^2+g^2-2fg=int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2-int_a^b2fgge0$



therefore,



$int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2geint_a^b2fg$



hence,



$frac{1}{2}(int_a^bf^2+int_a^bg^2)geint_a^bfg$









real-analysis integration






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edited Nov 29 '18 at 3:13

























asked Nov 28 '18 at 21:46









Albert Diaz

925




925








  • 1




    This is a version of what's called the "AM-GM" inequality, in case you didn't know.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 '18 at 23:07














  • 1




    This is a version of what's called the "AM-GM" inequality, in case you didn't know.
    – rubikscube09
    Nov 28 '18 at 23:07








1




1




This is a version of what's called the "AM-GM" inequality, in case you didn't know.
– rubikscube09
Nov 28 '18 at 23:07




This is a version of what's called the "AM-GM" inequality, in case you didn't know.
– rubikscube09
Nov 28 '18 at 23:07










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3














Hint:



$$ (a - b)^2 ge 0 $$






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
    – Albert Diaz
    Nov 28 '18 at 21:50












  • @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 28 '18 at 22:04



















2














Hint:



$(f(x) pm g(x))^2 =f^2(x)+g^2(x) pm 2f(x)g(x) ge 0.$



$f^2(x)+g^2(x) ge 2 |f(x)g(x)|$.



Hence



$f(x)g(x) le |f(x)g(x)| le$



$ 2|f(x)g(x)| le f^2(x)+g(x)^2.$






share|cite|improve this answer





















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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

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    active

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    3














    Hint:



    $$ (a - b)^2 ge 0 $$






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
      – Albert Diaz
      Nov 28 '18 at 21:50












    • @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 28 '18 at 22:04
















    3














    Hint:



    $$ (a - b)^2 ge 0 $$






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
      – Albert Diaz
      Nov 28 '18 at 21:50












    • @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 28 '18 at 22:04














    3












    3








    3






    Hint:



    $$ (a - b)^2 ge 0 $$






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Hint:



    $$ (a - b)^2 ge 0 $$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 28 '18 at 21:49









    Trevor Gunn

    14.2k32046




    14.2k32046








    • 1




      ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
      – Albert Diaz
      Nov 28 '18 at 21:50












    • @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 28 '18 at 22:04














    • 1




      ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
      – Albert Diaz
      Nov 28 '18 at 21:50












    • @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
      – Trevor Gunn
      Nov 28 '18 at 22:04








    1




    1




    ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
    – Albert Diaz
    Nov 28 '18 at 21:50






    ah, would this be a hint towards the polynomial $f^2+g^2+2fg$? seems really obvious now
    – Albert Diaz
    Nov 28 '18 at 21:50














    @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 28 '18 at 22:04




    @Albert $-2fg$ but yes.
    – Trevor Gunn
    Nov 28 '18 at 22:04











    2














    Hint:



    $(f(x) pm g(x))^2 =f^2(x)+g^2(x) pm 2f(x)g(x) ge 0.$



    $f^2(x)+g^2(x) ge 2 |f(x)g(x)|$.



    Hence



    $f(x)g(x) le |f(x)g(x)| le$



    $ 2|f(x)g(x)| le f^2(x)+g(x)^2.$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      2














      Hint:



      $(f(x) pm g(x))^2 =f^2(x)+g^2(x) pm 2f(x)g(x) ge 0.$



      $f^2(x)+g^2(x) ge 2 |f(x)g(x)|$.



      Hence



      $f(x)g(x) le |f(x)g(x)| le$



      $ 2|f(x)g(x)| le f^2(x)+g(x)^2.$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        2












        2








        2






        Hint:



        $(f(x) pm g(x))^2 =f^2(x)+g^2(x) pm 2f(x)g(x) ge 0.$



        $f^2(x)+g^2(x) ge 2 |f(x)g(x)|$.



        Hence



        $f(x)g(x) le |f(x)g(x)| le$



        $ 2|f(x)g(x)| le f^2(x)+g(x)^2.$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Hint:



        $(f(x) pm g(x))^2 =f^2(x)+g^2(x) pm 2f(x)g(x) ge 0.$



        $f^2(x)+g^2(x) ge 2 |f(x)g(x)|$.



        Hence



        $f(x)g(x) le |f(x)g(x)| le$



        $ 2|f(x)g(x)| le f^2(x)+g(x)^2.$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 28 '18 at 21:58









        Peter Szilas

        10.7k2720




        10.7k2720






























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