Show that any prime ideal from such a ring is maximal.
Let R be a commutative ring with an identity such that for all $rin$ R, there exists some $n>1$ such that $r^n = r$. Show that any prime ideal is maximal. (Atiyah and MacDonald, Introduction to Commutative Algebra, Chapter 1, Exercise 7.)
Any hints?
abstract-algebra ring-theory maximal-and-prime-ideals
add a comment |
Let R be a commutative ring with an identity such that for all $rin$ R, there exists some $n>1$ such that $r^n = r$. Show that any prime ideal is maximal. (Atiyah and MacDonald, Introduction to Commutative Algebra, Chapter 1, Exercise 7.)
Any hints?
abstract-algebra ring-theory maximal-and-prime-ideals
3
You are probably assuming the ring is commutative: if so, please edit the question and add that hypothesis. In any case, your hypothesis actually implies that the ring must be commutative, by a theorem of Jacobson, but the proof of this is quite not as simple as one might want.
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:42
1
Yes, you are correct, I apologize.
– user41916
Oct 11 '12 at 8:04
1
Oh, there is no need to apologize! Just keeping things precise is good for the universe :-)
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 8:06
add a comment |
Let R be a commutative ring with an identity such that for all $rin$ R, there exists some $n>1$ such that $r^n = r$. Show that any prime ideal is maximal. (Atiyah and MacDonald, Introduction to Commutative Algebra, Chapter 1, Exercise 7.)
Any hints?
abstract-algebra ring-theory maximal-and-prime-ideals
Let R be a commutative ring with an identity such that for all $rin$ R, there exists some $n>1$ such that $r^n = r$. Show that any prime ideal is maximal. (Atiyah and MacDonald, Introduction to Commutative Algebra, Chapter 1, Exercise 7.)
Any hints?
abstract-algebra ring-theory maximal-and-prime-ideals
abstract-algebra ring-theory maximal-and-prime-ideals
edited Dec 5 '15 at 22:06
user26857
39.2k123882
39.2k123882
asked Oct 11 '12 at 7:06
user41916
3
You are probably assuming the ring is commutative: if so, please edit the question and add that hypothesis. In any case, your hypothesis actually implies that the ring must be commutative, by a theorem of Jacobson, but the proof of this is quite not as simple as one might want.
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:42
1
Yes, you are correct, I apologize.
– user41916
Oct 11 '12 at 8:04
1
Oh, there is no need to apologize! Just keeping things precise is good for the universe :-)
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 8:06
add a comment |
3
You are probably assuming the ring is commutative: if so, please edit the question and add that hypothesis. In any case, your hypothesis actually implies that the ring must be commutative, by a theorem of Jacobson, but the proof of this is quite not as simple as one might want.
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:42
1
Yes, you are correct, I apologize.
– user41916
Oct 11 '12 at 8:04
1
Oh, there is no need to apologize! Just keeping things precise is good for the universe :-)
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 8:06
3
3
You are probably assuming the ring is commutative: if so, please edit the question and add that hypothesis. In any case, your hypothesis actually implies that the ring must be commutative, by a theorem of Jacobson, but the proof of this is quite not as simple as one might want.
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:42
You are probably assuming the ring is commutative: if so, please edit the question and add that hypothesis. In any case, your hypothesis actually implies that the ring must be commutative, by a theorem of Jacobson, but the proof of this is quite not as simple as one might want.
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:42
1
1
Yes, you are correct, I apologize.
– user41916
Oct 11 '12 at 8:04
Yes, you are correct, I apologize.
– user41916
Oct 11 '12 at 8:04
1
1
Oh, there is no need to apologize! Just keeping things precise is good for the universe :-)
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 8:06
Oh, there is no need to apologize! Just keeping things precise is good for the universe :-)
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 8:06
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
Hint: Reduce to the case that $R$ is an integral domain satisfying $forall r exists n (r^n=r)$, and show that $R$ is a field.
4
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
add a comment |
Let $,D,$ be any integer domain and let $,din D,$ be s.t. $,d^n=d,,,,,1<ninBbb N,$ , then:
$$d^n=dLongrightarrow d(d^{n-1}-1)=0Longleftrightarrow d=0,,,text{or},,,d^{n-1}=1,$$
so if $,d,$ is not zero then it must be a unit.
$$-------o----------o---------o---$$
In our case: let $,Ileq R,$ be a prime ideal and let $, rin Rsetminus I,$, then:
$$exists,ninBbb N,,s.t.,,r^n=rLongrightarrow left(r+Iright)^n=r^n+I=r+Iin R/I$$
Now use the first part with $,D:=R/I,,,,,,d=r+I,$ and deduce $,R/I,$ is actually a field...
add a comment |
Proof: Let $mathfrak{p}$ be a prime ideal in $A$. Note that since $mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal we have that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain.
We will show first that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Choose $x + mathfrak{p} in A / mathfrak{p}$ such that $x + p neq 0_{A/ mathfrak{p}}$. By hypothesis $x^n = x$ for some $n > 1$. Observe then that $$(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x^n + mathfrak{p} = x + mathfrak{p}.$$
We then have that
begin{align*}
(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x + mathfrak{p} &implies (x+mathfrak{p})^n - (x+mathfrak{p}) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies (x + mathfrak{p})left((x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} - 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}right) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies x+ mathfrak{p} = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} text{or} (x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}
end{align*}
where the last implication follows from the fact that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain. Now since $x + mathfrak{p} neq 0_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ we must have that $(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$. But then we have $(x+ mathfrak{p})(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-2} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ and so $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ is an inverse of $x + mathfrak{p}$.
Note that since $n > 1$ it follows that $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ makes sense. Thus every non-zero element of $A/ mathfrak{p}$ has an inverse and so $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Hence $mathfrak{p}$ is maximal in $A$. $square$
add a comment |
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Hint: Reduce to the case that $R$ is an integral domain satisfying $forall r exists n (r^n=r)$, and show that $R$ is a field.
4
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
add a comment |
Hint: Reduce to the case that $R$ is an integral domain satisfying $forall r exists n (r^n=r)$, and show that $R$ is a field.
4
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
add a comment |
Hint: Reduce to the case that $R$ is an integral domain satisfying $forall r exists n (r^n=r)$, and show that $R$ is a field.
Hint: Reduce to the case that $R$ is an integral domain satisfying $forall r exists n (r^n=r)$, and show that $R$ is a field.
edited Oct 11 '12 at 7:28
answered Oct 11 '12 at 7:08
Martin Brandenburg
107k13157326
107k13157326
4
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
add a comment |
4
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
4
4
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
Slightly more verbosely: in order to prove that a prime ideal $mathfrak psubseteq R$ is maximal, it is enough to show that the quotient $R/mathfrak p$ is a field. Now the quotient is an integral domain and it has the same property that you supposed $R$ itself has. &c
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:41
add a comment |
Let $,D,$ be any integer domain and let $,din D,$ be s.t. $,d^n=d,,,,,1<ninBbb N,$ , then:
$$d^n=dLongrightarrow d(d^{n-1}-1)=0Longleftrightarrow d=0,,,text{or},,,d^{n-1}=1,$$
so if $,d,$ is not zero then it must be a unit.
$$-------o----------o---------o---$$
In our case: let $,Ileq R,$ be a prime ideal and let $, rin Rsetminus I,$, then:
$$exists,ninBbb N,,s.t.,,r^n=rLongrightarrow left(r+Iright)^n=r^n+I=r+Iin R/I$$
Now use the first part with $,D:=R/I,,,,,,d=r+I,$ and deduce $,R/I,$ is actually a field...
add a comment |
Let $,D,$ be any integer domain and let $,din D,$ be s.t. $,d^n=d,,,,,1<ninBbb N,$ , then:
$$d^n=dLongrightarrow d(d^{n-1}-1)=0Longleftrightarrow d=0,,,text{or},,,d^{n-1}=1,$$
so if $,d,$ is not zero then it must be a unit.
$$-------o----------o---------o---$$
In our case: let $,Ileq R,$ be a prime ideal and let $, rin Rsetminus I,$, then:
$$exists,ninBbb N,,s.t.,,r^n=rLongrightarrow left(r+Iright)^n=r^n+I=r+Iin R/I$$
Now use the first part with $,D:=R/I,,,,,,d=r+I,$ and deduce $,R/I,$ is actually a field...
add a comment |
Let $,D,$ be any integer domain and let $,din D,$ be s.t. $,d^n=d,,,,,1<ninBbb N,$ , then:
$$d^n=dLongrightarrow d(d^{n-1}-1)=0Longleftrightarrow d=0,,,text{or},,,d^{n-1}=1,$$
so if $,d,$ is not zero then it must be a unit.
$$-------o----------o---------o---$$
In our case: let $,Ileq R,$ be a prime ideal and let $, rin Rsetminus I,$, then:
$$exists,ninBbb N,,s.t.,,r^n=rLongrightarrow left(r+Iright)^n=r^n+I=r+Iin R/I$$
Now use the first part with $,D:=R/I,,,,,,d=r+I,$ and deduce $,R/I,$ is actually a field...
Let $,D,$ be any integer domain and let $,din D,$ be s.t. $,d^n=d,,,,,1<ninBbb N,$ , then:
$$d^n=dLongrightarrow d(d^{n-1}-1)=0Longleftrightarrow d=0,,,text{or},,,d^{n-1}=1,$$
so if $,d,$ is not zero then it must be a unit.
$$-------o----------o---------o---$$
In our case: let $,Ileq R,$ be a prime ideal and let $, rin Rsetminus I,$, then:
$$exists,ninBbb N,,s.t.,,r^n=rLongrightarrow left(r+Iright)^n=r^n+I=r+Iin R/I$$
Now use the first part with $,D:=R/I,,,,,,d=r+I,$ and deduce $,R/I,$ is actually a field...
edited Dec 5 '15 at 23:21
user26857
39.2k123882
39.2k123882
answered Oct 11 '12 at 11:19
DonAntonio
176k1491225
176k1491225
add a comment |
add a comment |
Proof: Let $mathfrak{p}$ be a prime ideal in $A$. Note that since $mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal we have that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain.
We will show first that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Choose $x + mathfrak{p} in A / mathfrak{p}$ such that $x + p neq 0_{A/ mathfrak{p}}$. By hypothesis $x^n = x$ for some $n > 1$. Observe then that $$(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x^n + mathfrak{p} = x + mathfrak{p}.$$
We then have that
begin{align*}
(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x + mathfrak{p} &implies (x+mathfrak{p})^n - (x+mathfrak{p}) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies (x + mathfrak{p})left((x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} - 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}right) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies x+ mathfrak{p} = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} text{or} (x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}
end{align*}
where the last implication follows from the fact that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain. Now since $x + mathfrak{p} neq 0_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ we must have that $(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$. But then we have $(x+ mathfrak{p})(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-2} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ and so $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ is an inverse of $x + mathfrak{p}$.
Note that since $n > 1$ it follows that $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ makes sense. Thus every non-zero element of $A/ mathfrak{p}$ has an inverse and so $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Hence $mathfrak{p}$ is maximal in $A$. $square$
add a comment |
Proof: Let $mathfrak{p}$ be a prime ideal in $A$. Note that since $mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal we have that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain.
We will show first that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Choose $x + mathfrak{p} in A / mathfrak{p}$ such that $x + p neq 0_{A/ mathfrak{p}}$. By hypothesis $x^n = x$ for some $n > 1$. Observe then that $$(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x^n + mathfrak{p} = x + mathfrak{p}.$$
We then have that
begin{align*}
(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x + mathfrak{p} &implies (x+mathfrak{p})^n - (x+mathfrak{p}) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies (x + mathfrak{p})left((x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} - 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}right) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies x+ mathfrak{p} = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} text{or} (x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}
end{align*}
where the last implication follows from the fact that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain. Now since $x + mathfrak{p} neq 0_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ we must have that $(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$. But then we have $(x+ mathfrak{p})(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-2} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ and so $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ is an inverse of $x + mathfrak{p}$.
Note that since $n > 1$ it follows that $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ makes sense. Thus every non-zero element of $A/ mathfrak{p}$ has an inverse and so $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Hence $mathfrak{p}$ is maximal in $A$. $square$
add a comment |
Proof: Let $mathfrak{p}$ be a prime ideal in $A$. Note that since $mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal we have that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain.
We will show first that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Choose $x + mathfrak{p} in A / mathfrak{p}$ such that $x + p neq 0_{A/ mathfrak{p}}$. By hypothesis $x^n = x$ for some $n > 1$. Observe then that $$(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x^n + mathfrak{p} = x + mathfrak{p}.$$
We then have that
begin{align*}
(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x + mathfrak{p} &implies (x+mathfrak{p})^n - (x+mathfrak{p}) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies (x + mathfrak{p})left((x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} - 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}right) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies x+ mathfrak{p} = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} text{or} (x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}
end{align*}
where the last implication follows from the fact that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain. Now since $x + mathfrak{p} neq 0_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ we must have that $(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$. But then we have $(x+ mathfrak{p})(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-2} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ and so $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ is an inverse of $x + mathfrak{p}$.
Note that since $n > 1$ it follows that $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ makes sense. Thus every non-zero element of $A/ mathfrak{p}$ has an inverse and so $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Hence $mathfrak{p}$ is maximal in $A$. $square$
Proof: Let $mathfrak{p}$ be a prime ideal in $A$. Note that since $mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal we have that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain.
We will show first that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Choose $x + mathfrak{p} in A / mathfrak{p}$ such that $x + p neq 0_{A/ mathfrak{p}}$. By hypothesis $x^n = x$ for some $n > 1$. Observe then that $$(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x^n + mathfrak{p} = x + mathfrak{p}.$$
We then have that
begin{align*}
(x+mathfrak{p})^n = x + mathfrak{p} &implies (x+mathfrak{p})^n - (x+mathfrak{p}) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies (x + mathfrak{p})left((x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} - 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}right) = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} \
&implies x+ mathfrak{p} = 0_{A/mathfrak{p}} text{or} (x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}
end{align*}
where the last implication follows from the fact that $A / mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain. Now since $x + mathfrak{p} neq 0_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ we must have that $(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-1} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$. But then we have $(x+ mathfrak{p})(x+mathfrak{p})^{n-2} = 1_{A/mathfrak{p}}$ and so $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ is an inverse of $x + mathfrak{p}$.
Note that since $n > 1$ it follows that $(x+ mathfrak{p})^{n-2}$ makes sense. Thus every non-zero element of $A/ mathfrak{p}$ has an inverse and so $A / mathfrak{p}$ is a field. Hence $mathfrak{p}$ is maximal in $A$. $square$
answered Dec 13 at 2:33
Perturbative
4,04511449
4,04511449
add a comment |
add a comment |
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You are probably assuming the ring is commutative: if so, please edit the question and add that hypothesis. In any case, your hypothesis actually implies that the ring must be commutative, by a theorem of Jacobson, but the proof of this is quite not as simple as one might want.
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 7:42
1
Yes, you are correct, I apologize.
– user41916
Oct 11 '12 at 8:04
1
Oh, there is no need to apologize! Just keeping things precise is good for the universe :-)
– Mariano Suárez-Álvarez
Oct 11 '12 at 8:06