The limit $lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}$ [closed]












0














$$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}$$
I tried the formula $cos^2x = dfrac{1+cos 2x}2.$



But I keep obtaining $dfrac{infty}{infty}$.










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closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra Nov 28 '18 at 11:45


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 3




    How do you get $infty$ in the numerator?
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:34
















0














$$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}$$
I tried the formula $cos^2x = dfrac{1+cos 2x}2.$



But I keep obtaining $dfrac{infty}{infty}$.










share|cite|improve this question















closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra Nov 28 '18 at 11:45


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 3




    How do you get $infty$ in the numerator?
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:34














0












0








0







$$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}$$
I tried the formula $cos^2x = dfrac{1+cos 2x}2.$



But I keep obtaining $dfrac{infty}{infty}$.










share|cite|improve this question















$$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}$$
I tried the formula $cos^2x = dfrac{1+cos 2x}2.$



But I keep obtaining $dfrac{infty}{infty}$.







calculus limits






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 27 '18 at 20:23









amWhy

191k28224439




191k28224439










asked Nov 27 '18 at 19:24









Taw Taw

7




7




closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra Nov 28 '18 at 11:45


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra Nov 28 '18 at 11:45


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – amWhy, RRL, Saad, Arnaud D., Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 3




    How do you get $infty$ in the numerator?
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:34














  • 3




    How do you get $infty$ in the numerator?
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:34








3




3




How do you get $infty$ in the numerator?
– amWhy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:34




How do you get $infty$ in the numerator?
– amWhy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:34










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3














The limit is zero by the squeeze theorem, since $$0<frac{1+cos^2 x}{x^2}leq frac{2}{x^2}$$






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  • 2




    The right inequality should be $le$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:32






  • 1




    Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
    – user376343
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:35



















2














$cos^2 x$ is bounded from $0$ to $1$. Then $$g(x)=frac{1+0}{x^2}lefrac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}lefrac{1+1}{x^2}=h(x)$$



Both $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ tend to $0$ as $xtoinfty$, then by the squeeze theorem $$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}=0$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:45



















1














HINT



Simply note that $0le cos^2 xle 1$ and then



$$0le frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}le frac2{x^2}$$



now take the limit and refer to squeeze theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:27












  • The left hand inequality is strict.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:57










  • @amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:02




















3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3














The limit is zero by the squeeze theorem, since $$0<frac{1+cos^2 x}{x^2}leq frac{2}{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 2




    The right inequality should be $le$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:32






  • 1




    Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
    – user376343
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:35
















3














The limit is zero by the squeeze theorem, since $$0<frac{1+cos^2 x}{x^2}leq frac{2}{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 2




    The right inequality should be $le$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:32






  • 1




    Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
    – user376343
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:35














3












3








3






The limit is zero by the squeeze theorem, since $$0<frac{1+cos^2 x}{x^2}leq frac{2}{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer














The limit is zero by the squeeze theorem, since $$0<frac{1+cos^2 x}{x^2}leq frac{2}{x^2}$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 27 '18 at 19:37

























answered Nov 27 '18 at 19:26









user376343

2,8382822




2,8382822








  • 2




    The right inequality should be $le$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:32






  • 1




    Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
    – user376343
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:35














  • 2




    The right inequality should be $le$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:32






  • 1




    Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
    – user376343
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:35








2




2




The right inequality should be $le$.
– gimusi
Nov 27 '18 at 19:32




The right inequality should be $le$.
– gimusi
Nov 27 '18 at 19:32




1




1




Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
– user376343
Nov 27 '18 at 19:35




Yes thanks I just returned to fix it.
– user376343
Nov 27 '18 at 19:35











2














$cos^2 x$ is bounded from $0$ to $1$. Then $$g(x)=frac{1+0}{x^2}lefrac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}lefrac{1+1}{x^2}=h(x)$$



Both $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ tend to $0$ as $xtoinfty$, then by the squeeze theorem $$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}=0$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:45
















2














$cos^2 x$ is bounded from $0$ to $1$. Then $$g(x)=frac{1+0}{x^2}lefrac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}lefrac{1+1}{x^2}=h(x)$$



Both $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ tend to $0$ as $xtoinfty$, then by the squeeze theorem $$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}=0$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:45














2












2








2






$cos^2 x$ is bounded from $0$ to $1$. Then $$g(x)=frac{1+0}{x^2}lefrac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}lefrac{1+1}{x^2}=h(x)$$



Both $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ tend to $0$ as $xtoinfty$, then by the squeeze theorem $$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}=0$$






share|cite|improve this answer












$cos^2 x$ is bounded from $0$ to $1$. Then $$g(x)=frac{1+0}{x^2}lefrac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}lefrac{1+1}{x^2}=h(x)$$



Both $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ tend to $0$ as $xtoinfty$, then by the squeeze theorem $$lim_{xto infty}frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}=0$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 27 '18 at 19:37









Lorenzo B.

1,8322520




1,8322520












  • That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:45


















  • That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:45
















That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
– gimusi
Nov 27 '18 at 19:45




That’s fine, to simplify for the LHS it suffices take $g(x)=0$.
– gimusi
Nov 27 '18 at 19:45











1














HINT



Simply note that $0le cos^2 xle 1$ and then



$$0le frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}le frac2{x^2}$$



now take the limit and refer to squeeze theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:27












  • The left hand inequality is strict.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:57










  • @amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:02


















1














HINT



Simply note that $0le cos^2 xle 1$ and then



$$0le frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}le frac2{x^2}$$



now take the limit and refer to squeeze theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:27












  • The left hand inequality is strict.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:57










  • @amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:02
















1












1








1






HINT



Simply note that $0le cos^2 xle 1$ and then



$$0le frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}le frac2{x^2}$$



now take the limit and refer to squeeze theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer














HINT



Simply note that $0le cos^2 xle 1$ and then



$$0le frac{1+cos^2x}{x^2}le frac2{x^2}$$



now take the limit and refer to squeeze theorem.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 27 '18 at 19:39

























answered Nov 27 '18 at 19:26









gimusi

1




1












  • Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:27












  • The left hand inequality is strict.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:57










  • @amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:02




















  • Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:27












  • The left hand inequality is strict.
    – amWhy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:57










  • @amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
    – gimusi
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:02


















Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
– amWhy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:27






Please use proper formatting, instead of copying and pasting an ill-formatted OP.
– amWhy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:27














The left hand inequality is strict.
– amWhy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:57




The left hand inequality is strict.
– amWhy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:57












@amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
– gimusi
Nov 27 '18 at 20:02






@amWhy The left hand inequality "can also be" strict, we really do not need that. The right hand side can't be strict but it is another story. Please do not hesitate to ask for any other clarification on that!
– gimusi
Nov 27 '18 at 20:02





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