Given a book with $100$ pages and a $100$ lemmas, prove that there is some lemma written on the same page as...












17















A book consists of 100 pages and contains 100 lemmas and some images. Each lemma is at most one page long and can't be split into two pages (it has to fit in one page). The lemmas are numbered from 1 to 100 and are written in ascending order. Prove that there must be at least one lemma written on a page with the same number as the lemma's number.




If lemma no. $1$ is written on page $1$, then it is proved. Let's assume lemma no. $1$ is written on page $k, k>1$. Then on at least one page there must be $2$ lemmas. Let's assume that always on page $k+i$ we have lemma no. $i+1$ and so on. Then the last $100-k-i$ lemmas must fit on the last page, which means that there will be at least one lemma (number $100$) on page $100$.



But I don't know how to express it in a more mathematical way!



Any help?










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  • 1




    Lemma 1 occurs on page 1.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 27 '18 at 18:52






  • 8




    @Chickenmancer An image could be on the first page.
    – Oldboy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:13










  • I edited your tags from "number theory" and "elementary number theory" to "combinatorics", which I'm fairly confident more accurately reflects how other people would perceive the topic...
    – paul garrett
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:34






  • 1




    Are the pages numbered (in ascending order)?
    – Servaes
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:39
















17















A book consists of 100 pages and contains 100 lemmas and some images. Each lemma is at most one page long and can't be split into two pages (it has to fit in one page). The lemmas are numbered from 1 to 100 and are written in ascending order. Prove that there must be at least one lemma written on a page with the same number as the lemma's number.




If lemma no. $1$ is written on page $1$, then it is proved. Let's assume lemma no. $1$ is written on page $k, k>1$. Then on at least one page there must be $2$ lemmas. Let's assume that always on page $k+i$ we have lemma no. $i+1$ and so on. Then the last $100-k-i$ lemmas must fit on the last page, which means that there will be at least one lemma (number $100$) on page $100$.



But I don't know how to express it in a more mathematical way!



Any help?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Lemma 1 occurs on page 1.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 27 '18 at 18:52






  • 8




    @Chickenmancer An image could be on the first page.
    – Oldboy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:13










  • I edited your tags from "number theory" and "elementary number theory" to "combinatorics", which I'm fairly confident more accurately reflects how other people would perceive the topic...
    – paul garrett
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:34






  • 1




    Are the pages numbered (in ascending order)?
    – Servaes
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:39














17












17








17


6






A book consists of 100 pages and contains 100 lemmas and some images. Each lemma is at most one page long and can't be split into two pages (it has to fit in one page). The lemmas are numbered from 1 to 100 and are written in ascending order. Prove that there must be at least one lemma written on a page with the same number as the lemma's number.




If lemma no. $1$ is written on page $1$, then it is proved. Let's assume lemma no. $1$ is written on page $k, k>1$. Then on at least one page there must be $2$ lemmas. Let's assume that always on page $k+i$ we have lemma no. $i+1$ and so on. Then the last $100-k-i$ lemmas must fit on the last page, which means that there will be at least one lemma (number $100$) on page $100$.



But I don't know how to express it in a more mathematical way!



Any help?










share|cite|improve this question
















A book consists of 100 pages and contains 100 lemmas and some images. Each lemma is at most one page long and can't be split into two pages (it has to fit in one page). The lemmas are numbered from 1 to 100 and are written in ascending order. Prove that there must be at least one lemma written on a page with the same number as the lemma's number.




If lemma no. $1$ is written on page $1$, then it is proved. Let's assume lemma no. $1$ is written on page $k, k>1$. Then on at least one page there must be $2$ lemmas. Let's assume that always on page $k+i$ we have lemma no. $i+1$ and so on. Then the last $100-k-i$ lemmas must fit on the last page, which means that there will be at least one lemma (number $100$) on page $100$.



But I don't know how to express it in a more mathematical way!



Any help?







combinatorics






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edited Dec 10 '18 at 23:01









timtfj

1,006318




1,006318










asked Nov 27 '18 at 18:48









Reyansh Laghari

1616




1616








  • 1




    Lemma 1 occurs on page 1.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 27 '18 at 18:52






  • 8




    @Chickenmancer An image could be on the first page.
    – Oldboy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:13










  • I edited your tags from "number theory" and "elementary number theory" to "combinatorics", which I'm fairly confident more accurately reflects how other people would perceive the topic...
    – paul garrett
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:34






  • 1




    Are the pages numbered (in ascending order)?
    – Servaes
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:39














  • 1




    Lemma 1 occurs on page 1.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 27 '18 at 18:52






  • 8




    @Chickenmancer An image could be on the first page.
    – Oldboy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:13










  • I edited your tags from "number theory" and "elementary number theory" to "combinatorics", which I'm fairly confident more accurately reflects how other people would perceive the topic...
    – paul garrett
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:34






  • 1




    Are the pages numbered (in ascending order)?
    – Servaes
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:39








1




1




Lemma 1 occurs on page 1.
– Chickenmancer
Nov 27 '18 at 18:52




Lemma 1 occurs on page 1.
– Chickenmancer
Nov 27 '18 at 18:52




8




8




@Chickenmancer An image could be on the first page.
– Oldboy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:13




@Chickenmancer An image could be on the first page.
– Oldboy
Nov 27 '18 at 19:13












I edited your tags from "number theory" and "elementary number theory" to "combinatorics", which I'm fairly confident more accurately reflects how other people would perceive the topic...
– paul garrett
Nov 28 '18 at 0:34




I edited your tags from "number theory" and "elementary number theory" to "combinatorics", which I'm fairly confident more accurately reflects how other people would perceive the topic...
– paul garrett
Nov 28 '18 at 0:34




1




1




Are the pages numbered (in ascending order)?
– Servaes
Nov 28 '18 at 0:39




Are the pages numbered (in ascending order)?
– Servaes
Nov 28 '18 at 0:39










7 Answers
7






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17














We claim more generally that a book of $n$ pages and $n$ lemmas numbered $1$ through $n$ has at least one lemma on a page matching its number.



Proof by induction on $n$: The case $n=1$ is obvious. Now suppose the statement is true for some $n$, and suppose we have a book of $n+1$ lemmas and $n+1$ pages. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ must be on pages $1$ through $n$, and there must be at least one lemma on a same-numbered page by the inductive hypothesis. If not, then lemma $n+1$ is on page $n+1$, and we're done.






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  • +1 The way to go!
    – Servaes
    Nov 28 '18 at 0:40










  • That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
    – Stephan Kolassa
    Nov 28 '18 at 8:18










  • @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
    – Tim Pederick
    Nov 28 '18 at 9:30






  • 1




    @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
    – awkward
    Nov 28 '18 at 13:01












  • @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
    – Stephan Kolassa
    Nov 28 '18 at 13:57



















7














For each page $i$ assign a number $p(i)$ that defines the highest number of lemma printed on all pages starting from page 1 up to page $i$ (inclusive). So if we have lemmas 3, 4 and 5 printed on page 12, with page 13 having images only: $p(12)=p(13)=5$.



We have the following sequence:



$$p(1), p(2), dots, p(100)=100tag{1}$$



If $p(1)ge1$ it means that lemma 1 is printed on the first page and we are done.



Let us consider a case when $p(1)=0$ (which basically means that the first page is reserved for images only).



The sequence of page numbers $i$ is strictly increasing and the sequence of values $p(i)$ is non-decreasing. Both sequencies have the same number of items (100), with $p(1)<1$ and $p(100)=100$.



Because of that we must have a pair of consecutive pages $i,space j=i+1$ such that:



$$p(i)<i$$



$$p(j)ge j$$



This basically means that lemma $j$ is not printed on page $i$ or on any other page before it. It is actually printed on page $j$ and this completes the proof.






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  • +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 27 '18 at 22:55










  • @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
    – timtfj
    Dec 11 '18 at 12:29





















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Slight rephrasing of Oldboy's argument:



Let $a_i = i - p_i$, where $p_i$ is the page number of lemma $i$.



Then $a_1 leq 0$, $a_{100} geq 0$, and $a_{i+1}-a_{i} leq 1$. Thus $a_i$ must be $0$ for some $i$.






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  • 1




    I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
    – user113102
    Nov 27 '18 at 23:24










  • And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
    – timtfj
    Dec 11 '18 at 16:13



















2














Consider the path of points $(L, p(L))$ where lemma $L$ is on page $p(L)$. Plot that path on the grid of lattice points $(x,y)$ for $1 le x, y le 100$. The path starts on or above the diagonal at point $(1, p(1))$ and ends on or below the diagonal at point $(100, p(100))$.



Following that path, you move to the right one step at a time as the lemma count increases. You may stay at the same horizontal level since many lemmas can appear on a page. Vertical steps can be longer, if pages of images intervene. Since you start out above the diagonal, you can't cross it for the first time on a vertical step. Since in order to end up on the other side of the diagonal you must cross it once, that must be a horizontal step, so you have landed on it on the way to the other side.



(This doesn't exactly answer your question, which calls "expressing [your proof] in a more mathematical way". I might be wrong, but I don't think that's possible.)






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  • 2




    "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
    – Oldboy
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:28










  • I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
    – Reyansh Laghari
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:31










  • @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 27 '18 at 19:36






  • 1




    @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Nov 27 '18 at 20:51






  • 1




    It’s ok now, +1.
    – Oldboy
    Nov 28 '18 at 6:15



















2














This is a special case of the Knaster-Tarski fixed point theorem (or a corollary thereof):




Theorem. Every increasing function from a certain set to itself has at least one fixed point




This is sometimes given as a nice exercise in real analysis courses, in the following form: Fixed point of a monotone on [0,1].






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    1














    Here's a slightly amended proof by induction, which I hope will make the induction step more obvious.



    Let $P_n$ be the proposition that for a book with $n$ sequentially numbered pages and $n$ or more sequentially numbered lemmas, at least one lemma is on a page with the same number as the lemma.



    Suppose $P_n$ is true for some $n=k$, and consider the case of $k+1$ pages and $k+1$ lemmas. To avoid being on its own-numbered page, lemma $k+1$ has to be somewhere in the first $k$ pages, and to keep the lemmas in sequence, no other lemma can go on page $k+1$.



    We therefore have to fit all $k+1$ lemmas onto the first $k$ pages. By $P_k$, this puts at least one of them on its own-numbered page.



    So wherever lemma $k+1$ is, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page.



    Clearly this remains true if we add more lemmas without adding more pages. That is, with $k+1$ pages and $ge k+1$ lemmas, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page: ie $P_{k+1}$ holds. That is, if $P_n$ is true for $n=k$, it is also true for $n=k+1$.



    Now consider the case of $1$ page and $ge 1$ lemmas. Clearly lemma 1 is on page 1, so $P_1$ is true. Therefore, by induction, $P_n$ is true for all $nge 1$.



    Finally, putting $n=100$ proves the case in the original question.






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      0














      Another proof, this time not by induction.



      [Edit: on being tidied up, this turned out to be basically an expanded version of the other proofs that don't use induction.]



      Consider a book of $k$ lemmas and $k$ pages.



      For $1le n le k$ and $ ninmathbb N$, let





      • $p_n$ be the page number of the $n$th lemma


      • $D_n=n-p_n$ be the difference between the lemma number and its page number.


      We are asked to prove that for some $n$, $D_n=0$.



      Suppose we have assigned pages to the first $n$ lemmas. The next lemma can be on either the same page as lemma $n$ or a later page, i.e.
      $$p_{n+1}ge p_n$$
      from which
      $$D_{n+1}le D_n+1$$



      That is, $D_n$ can't increase by more than $1$ between one lemma and the next.



      If the first lemma is on the first page ($p_1=1$), or the last lemma is on the last page ($p_k=k$), we already have a lemma on its own-numbered page. So we need only consider the case where $p_1>1$ and $p_k<k$, making $D_1<0$ and $D_k>0$.



      $D_n$ must therefore increase from a negative value to a positive one somewhere between $n=1$ and $n=k$. But it can only increase in steps of $1$. So for $D_n$ to change sign, there must be a value of $n$ for which $D_n=0$, ie for which lemma $n$ is on page $n$.



      There is therefore at least one lemma on a page with the same number as the lemma.






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        7 Answers
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        17














        We claim more generally that a book of $n$ pages and $n$ lemmas numbered $1$ through $n$ has at least one lemma on a page matching its number.



        Proof by induction on $n$: The case $n=1$ is obvious. Now suppose the statement is true for some $n$, and suppose we have a book of $n+1$ lemmas and $n+1$ pages. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ must be on pages $1$ through $n$, and there must be at least one lemma on a same-numbered page by the inductive hypothesis. If not, then lemma $n+1$ is on page $n+1$, and we're done.






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • +1 The way to go!
          – Servaes
          Nov 28 '18 at 0:40










        • That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 8:18










        • @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
          – Tim Pederick
          Nov 28 '18 at 9:30






        • 1




          @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
          – awkward
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:01












        • @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:57
















        17














        We claim more generally that a book of $n$ pages and $n$ lemmas numbered $1$ through $n$ has at least one lemma on a page matching its number.



        Proof by induction on $n$: The case $n=1$ is obvious. Now suppose the statement is true for some $n$, and suppose we have a book of $n+1$ lemmas and $n+1$ pages. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ must be on pages $1$ through $n$, and there must be at least one lemma on a same-numbered page by the inductive hypothesis. If not, then lemma $n+1$ is on page $n+1$, and we're done.






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • +1 The way to go!
          – Servaes
          Nov 28 '18 at 0:40










        • That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 8:18










        • @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
          – Tim Pederick
          Nov 28 '18 at 9:30






        • 1




          @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
          – awkward
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:01












        • @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:57














        17












        17








        17






        We claim more generally that a book of $n$ pages and $n$ lemmas numbered $1$ through $n$ has at least one lemma on a page matching its number.



        Proof by induction on $n$: The case $n=1$ is obvious. Now suppose the statement is true for some $n$, and suppose we have a book of $n+1$ lemmas and $n+1$ pages. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ must be on pages $1$ through $n$, and there must be at least one lemma on a same-numbered page by the inductive hypothesis. If not, then lemma $n+1$ is on page $n+1$, and we're done.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        We claim more generally that a book of $n$ pages and $n$ lemmas numbered $1$ through $n$ has at least one lemma on a page matching its number.



        Proof by induction on $n$: The case $n=1$ is obvious. Now suppose the statement is true for some $n$, and suppose we have a book of $n+1$ lemmas and $n+1$ pages. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ must be on pages $1$ through $n$, and there must be at least one lemma on a same-numbered page by the inductive hypothesis. If not, then lemma $n+1$ is on page $n+1$, and we're done.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 28 '18 at 0:11









        awkward

        5,85611022




        5,85611022












        • +1 The way to go!
          – Servaes
          Nov 28 '18 at 0:40










        • That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 8:18










        • @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
          – Tim Pederick
          Nov 28 '18 at 9:30






        • 1




          @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
          – awkward
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:01












        • @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:57


















        • +1 The way to go!
          – Servaes
          Nov 28 '18 at 0:40










        • That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 8:18










        • @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
          – Tim Pederick
          Nov 28 '18 at 9:30






        • 1




          @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
          – awkward
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:01












        • @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
          – Stephan Kolassa
          Nov 28 '18 at 13:57
















        +1 The way to go!
        – Servaes
        Nov 28 '18 at 0:40




        +1 The way to go!
        – Servaes
        Nov 28 '18 at 0:40












        That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
        – Stephan Kolassa
        Nov 28 '18 at 8:18




        That does not seem to work. If lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$, then lemmas $1$ through $n$ are spread over pages $1$ through $n+1$, not pages $1$ through $n$! So you can't apply the induction hypothesis.
        – Stephan Kolassa
        Nov 28 '18 at 8:18












        @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
        – Tim Pederick
        Nov 28 '18 at 9:30




        @StephanKolassa: Doesn't lemma $n$ have to be on the same page as, or an earlier page than, lemma $n+1$? In which case, if lemma $n+1$ is on a page numbered less than $n+1$ (thus less than or equal to $n$), lemma $n$ is too.
        – Tim Pederick
        Nov 28 '18 at 9:30




        1




        1




        @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
        – awkward
        Nov 28 '18 at 13:01






        @StephanKolassa The page numbers of the lemmas form a non-decreasing sequence. If the page number of lemma $n+1$ is less than $n+1$, then the page number of lemma $n$ is less than $n+1$, hence less than or equal to $n$.
        – awkward
        Nov 28 '18 at 13:01














        @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
        – Stephan Kolassa
        Nov 28 '18 at 13:57




        @awkward: thanks, that helps - I had overlooked that little detail. Better to read first, comment later.
        – Stephan Kolassa
        Nov 28 '18 at 13:57











        7














        For each page $i$ assign a number $p(i)$ that defines the highest number of lemma printed on all pages starting from page 1 up to page $i$ (inclusive). So if we have lemmas 3, 4 and 5 printed on page 12, with page 13 having images only: $p(12)=p(13)=5$.



        We have the following sequence:



        $$p(1), p(2), dots, p(100)=100tag{1}$$



        If $p(1)ge1$ it means that lemma 1 is printed on the first page and we are done.



        Let us consider a case when $p(1)=0$ (which basically means that the first page is reserved for images only).



        The sequence of page numbers $i$ is strictly increasing and the sequence of values $p(i)$ is non-decreasing. Both sequencies have the same number of items (100), with $p(1)<1$ and $p(100)=100$.



        Because of that we must have a pair of consecutive pages $i,space j=i+1$ such that:



        $$p(i)<i$$



        $$p(j)ge j$$



        This basically means that lemma $j$ is not printed on page $i$ or on any other page before it. It is actually printed on page $j$ and this completes the proof.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 22:55










        • @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 12:29


















        7














        For each page $i$ assign a number $p(i)$ that defines the highest number of lemma printed on all pages starting from page 1 up to page $i$ (inclusive). So if we have lemmas 3, 4 and 5 printed on page 12, with page 13 having images only: $p(12)=p(13)=5$.



        We have the following sequence:



        $$p(1), p(2), dots, p(100)=100tag{1}$$



        If $p(1)ge1$ it means that lemma 1 is printed on the first page and we are done.



        Let us consider a case when $p(1)=0$ (which basically means that the first page is reserved for images only).



        The sequence of page numbers $i$ is strictly increasing and the sequence of values $p(i)$ is non-decreasing. Both sequencies have the same number of items (100), with $p(1)<1$ and $p(100)=100$.



        Because of that we must have a pair of consecutive pages $i,space j=i+1$ such that:



        $$p(i)<i$$



        $$p(j)ge j$$



        This basically means that lemma $j$ is not printed on page $i$ or on any other page before it. It is actually printed on page $j$ and this completes the proof.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 22:55










        • @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 12:29
















        7












        7








        7






        For each page $i$ assign a number $p(i)$ that defines the highest number of lemma printed on all pages starting from page 1 up to page $i$ (inclusive). So if we have lemmas 3, 4 and 5 printed on page 12, with page 13 having images only: $p(12)=p(13)=5$.



        We have the following sequence:



        $$p(1), p(2), dots, p(100)=100tag{1}$$



        If $p(1)ge1$ it means that lemma 1 is printed on the first page and we are done.



        Let us consider a case when $p(1)=0$ (which basically means that the first page is reserved for images only).



        The sequence of page numbers $i$ is strictly increasing and the sequence of values $p(i)$ is non-decreasing. Both sequencies have the same number of items (100), with $p(1)<1$ and $p(100)=100$.



        Because of that we must have a pair of consecutive pages $i,space j=i+1$ such that:



        $$p(i)<i$$



        $$p(j)ge j$$



        This basically means that lemma $j$ is not printed on page $i$ or on any other page before it. It is actually printed on page $j$ and this completes the proof.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        For each page $i$ assign a number $p(i)$ that defines the highest number of lemma printed on all pages starting from page 1 up to page $i$ (inclusive). So if we have lemmas 3, 4 and 5 printed on page 12, with page 13 having images only: $p(12)=p(13)=5$.



        We have the following sequence:



        $$p(1), p(2), dots, p(100)=100tag{1}$$



        If $p(1)ge1$ it means that lemma 1 is printed on the first page and we are done.



        Let us consider a case when $p(1)=0$ (which basically means that the first page is reserved for images only).



        The sequence of page numbers $i$ is strictly increasing and the sequence of values $p(i)$ is non-decreasing. Both sequencies have the same number of items (100), with $p(1)<1$ and $p(100)=100$.



        Because of that we must have a pair of consecutive pages $i,space j=i+1$ such that:



        $$p(i)<i$$



        $$p(j)ge j$$



        This basically means that lemma $j$ is not printed on page $i$ or on any other page before it. It is actually printed on page $j$ and this completes the proof.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 27 '18 at 20:46

























        answered Nov 27 '18 at 19:51









        Oldboy

        6,8221831




        6,8221831












        • +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 22:55










        • @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 12:29




















        • +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 22:55










        • @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 12:29


















        +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
        – Ethan Bolker
        Nov 27 '18 at 22:55




        +1 very nice. I wonder if my solution is essentially the same as yours.
        – Ethan Bolker
        Nov 27 '18 at 22:55












        @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
        – timtfj
        Dec 11 '18 at 12:29






        @EthanBolker I think my second one is (and that it's basically yours but with a horizontal dividing line).
        – timtfj
        Dec 11 '18 at 12:29













        6














        Slight rephrasing of Oldboy's argument:



        Let $a_i = i - p_i$, where $p_i$ is the page number of lemma $i$.



        Then $a_1 leq 0$, $a_{100} geq 0$, and $a_{i+1}-a_{i} leq 1$. Thus $a_i$ must be $0$ for some $i$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 1




          I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
          – user113102
          Nov 27 '18 at 23:24










        • And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 16:13
















        6














        Slight rephrasing of Oldboy's argument:



        Let $a_i = i - p_i$, where $p_i$ is the page number of lemma $i$.



        Then $a_1 leq 0$, $a_{100} geq 0$, and $a_{i+1}-a_{i} leq 1$. Thus $a_i$ must be $0$ for some $i$.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 1




          I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
          – user113102
          Nov 27 '18 at 23:24










        • And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 16:13














        6












        6








        6






        Slight rephrasing of Oldboy's argument:



        Let $a_i = i - p_i$, where $p_i$ is the page number of lemma $i$.



        Then $a_1 leq 0$, $a_{100} geq 0$, and $a_{i+1}-a_{i} leq 1$. Thus $a_i$ must be $0$ for some $i$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Slight rephrasing of Oldboy's argument:



        Let $a_i = i - p_i$, where $p_i$ is the page number of lemma $i$.



        Then $a_1 leq 0$, $a_{100} geq 0$, and $a_{i+1}-a_{i} leq 1$. Thus $a_i$ must be $0$ for some $i$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 '18 at 23:02









        user113102

        863




        863








        • 1




          I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
          – user113102
          Nov 27 '18 at 23:24










        • And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 16:13














        • 1




          I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
          – user113102
          Nov 27 '18 at 23:24










        • And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
          – timtfj
          Dec 11 '18 at 16:13








        1




        1




        I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
        – user113102
        Nov 27 '18 at 23:24




        I guess this is the same idea as both Ethan's and Oldboy's arguments, but feels cleaner to me.
        – user113102
        Nov 27 '18 at 23:24












        And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
        – timtfj
        Dec 11 '18 at 16:13




        And I now see that I've repeated exactly the same.
        – timtfj
        Dec 11 '18 at 16:13











        2














        Consider the path of points $(L, p(L))$ where lemma $L$ is on page $p(L)$. Plot that path on the grid of lattice points $(x,y)$ for $1 le x, y le 100$. The path starts on or above the diagonal at point $(1, p(1))$ and ends on or below the diagonal at point $(100, p(100))$.



        Following that path, you move to the right one step at a time as the lemma count increases. You may stay at the same horizontal level since many lemmas can appear on a page. Vertical steps can be longer, if pages of images intervene. Since you start out above the diagonal, you can't cross it for the first time on a vertical step. Since in order to end up on the other side of the diagonal you must cross it once, that must be a horizontal step, so you have landed on it on the way to the other side.



        (This doesn't exactly answer your question, which calls "expressing [your proof] in a more mathematical way". I might be wrong, but I don't think that's possible.)






        share|cite|improve this answer



















        • 2




          "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:28










        • I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
          – Reyansh Laghari
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:31










        • @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:36






        • 1




          @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 20:51






        • 1




          It’s ok now, +1.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 28 '18 at 6:15
















        2














        Consider the path of points $(L, p(L))$ where lemma $L$ is on page $p(L)$. Plot that path on the grid of lattice points $(x,y)$ for $1 le x, y le 100$. The path starts on or above the diagonal at point $(1, p(1))$ and ends on or below the diagonal at point $(100, p(100))$.



        Following that path, you move to the right one step at a time as the lemma count increases. You may stay at the same horizontal level since many lemmas can appear on a page. Vertical steps can be longer, if pages of images intervene. Since you start out above the diagonal, you can't cross it for the first time on a vertical step. Since in order to end up on the other side of the diagonal you must cross it once, that must be a horizontal step, so you have landed on it on the way to the other side.



        (This doesn't exactly answer your question, which calls "expressing [your proof] in a more mathematical way". I might be wrong, but I don't think that's possible.)






        share|cite|improve this answer



















        • 2




          "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:28










        • I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
          – Reyansh Laghari
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:31










        • @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:36






        • 1




          @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 20:51






        • 1




          It’s ok now, +1.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 28 '18 at 6:15














        2












        2








        2






        Consider the path of points $(L, p(L))$ where lemma $L$ is on page $p(L)$. Plot that path on the grid of lattice points $(x,y)$ for $1 le x, y le 100$. The path starts on or above the diagonal at point $(1, p(1))$ and ends on or below the diagonal at point $(100, p(100))$.



        Following that path, you move to the right one step at a time as the lemma count increases. You may stay at the same horizontal level since many lemmas can appear on a page. Vertical steps can be longer, if pages of images intervene. Since you start out above the diagonal, you can't cross it for the first time on a vertical step. Since in order to end up on the other side of the diagonal you must cross it once, that must be a horizontal step, so you have landed on it on the way to the other side.



        (This doesn't exactly answer your question, which calls "expressing [your proof] in a more mathematical way". I might be wrong, but I don't think that's possible.)






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Consider the path of points $(L, p(L))$ where lemma $L$ is on page $p(L)$. Plot that path on the grid of lattice points $(x,y)$ for $1 le x, y le 100$. The path starts on or above the diagonal at point $(1, p(1))$ and ends on or below the diagonal at point $(100, p(100))$.



        Following that path, you move to the right one step at a time as the lemma count increases. You may stay at the same horizontal level since many lemmas can appear on a page. Vertical steps can be longer, if pages of images intervene. Since you start out above the diagonal, you can't cross it for the first time on a vertical step. Since in order to end up on the other side of the diagonal you must cross it once, that must be a horizontal step, so you have landed on it on the way to the other side.



        (This doesn't exactly answer your question, which calls "expressing [your proof] in a more mathematical way". I might be wrong, but I don't think that's possible.)







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 28 '18 at 16:05

























        answered Nov 27 '18 at 19:18









        Ethan Bolker

        41.3k547108




        41.3k547108








        • 2




          "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:28










        • I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
          – Reyansh Laghari
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:31










        • @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:36






        • 1




          @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 20:51






        • 1




          It’s ok now, +1.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 28 '18 at 6:15














        • 2




          "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:28










        • I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
          – Reyansh Laghari
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:31










        • @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 19:36






        • 1




          @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
          – Ethan Bolker
          Nov 27 '18 at 20:51






        • 1




          It’s ok now, +1.
          – Oldboy
          Nov 28 '18 at 6:15








        2




        2




        "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
        – Oldboy
        Nov 27 '18 at 19:28




        "since at most one lemma fits on a page": This is not given.
        – Oldboy
        Nov 27 '18 at 19:28












        I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
        – Reyansh Laghari
        Nov 27 '18 at 19:31




        I believe that the path steps horizontally at most one but can step up many steps, right?
        – Reyansh Laghari
        Nov 27 '18 at 19:31












        @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
        – Ethan Bolker
        Nov 27 '18 at 19:36




        @ReyanshLaghari I think my proof is fixable but I can't do it right now. You can edit it if you figure it out. If not I will return later today.
        – Ethan Bolker
        Nov 27 '18 at 19:36




        1




        1




        @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
        – Ethan Bolker
        Nov 27 '18 at 20:51




        @Oldboy Fixed the argument thank you.
        – Ethan Bolker
        Nov 27 '18 at 20:51




        1




        1




        It’s ok now, +1.
        – Oldboy
        Nov 28 '18 at 6:15




        It’s ok now, +1.
        – Oldboy
        Nov 28 '18 at 6:15











        2














        This is a special case of the Knaster-Tarski fixed point theorem (or a corollary thereof):




        Theorem. Every increasing function from a certain set to itself has at least one fixed point




        This is sometimes given as a nice exercise in real analysis courses, in the following form: Fixed point of a monotone on [0,1].






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          2














          This is a special case of the Knaster-Tarski fixed point theorem (or a corollary thereof):




          Theorem. Every increasing function from a certain set to itself has at least one fixed point




          This is sometimes given as a nice exercise in real analysis courses, in the following form: Fixed point of a monotone on [0,1].






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            2












            2








            2






            This is a special case of the Knaster-Tarski fixed point theorem (or a corollary thereof):




            Theorem. Every increasing function from a certain set to itself has at least one fixed point




            This is sometimes given as a nice exercise in real analysis courses, in the following form: Fixed point of a monotone on [0,1].






            share|cite|improve this answer












            This is a special case of the Knaster-Tarski fixed point theorem (or a corollary thereof):




            Theorem. Every increasing function from a certain set to itself has at least one fixed point




            This is sometimes given as a nice exercise in real analysis courses, in the following form: Fixed point of a monotone on [0,1].







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 4 '18 at 19:37









            barto

            13.6k32682




            13.6k32682























                1














                Here's a slightly amended proof by induction, which I hope will make the induction step more obvious.



                Let $P_n$ be the proposition that for a book with $n$ sequentially numbered pages and $n$ or more sequentially numbered lemmas, at least one lemma is on a page with the same number as the lemma.



                Suppose $P_n$ is true for some $n=k$, and consider the case of $k+1$ pages and $k+1$ lemmas. To avoid being on its own-numbered page, lemma $k+1$ has to be somewhere in the first $k$ pages, and to keep the lemmas in sequence, no other lemma can go on page $k+1$.



                We therefore have to fit all $k+1$ lemmas onto the first $k$ pages. By $P_k$, this puts at least one of them on its own-numbered page.



                So wherever lemma $k+1$ is, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page.



                Clearly this remains true if we add more lemmas without adding more pages. That is, with $k+1$ pages and $ge k+1$ lemmas, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page: ie $P_{k+1}$ holds. That is, if $P_n$ is true for $n=k$, it is also true for $n=k+1$.



                Now consider the case of $1$ page and $ge 1$ lemmas. Clearly lemma 1 is on page 1, so $P_1$ is true. Therefore, by induction, $P_n$ is true for all $nge 1$.



                Finally, putting $n=100$ proves the case in the original question.






                share|cite|improve this answer




























                  1














                  Here's a slightly amended proof by induction, which I hope will make the induction step more obvious.



                  Let $P_n$ be the proposition that for a book with $n$ sequentially numbered pages and $n$ or more sequentially numbered lemmas, at least one lemma is on a page with the same number as the lemma.



                  Suppose $P_n$ is true for some $n=k$, and consider the case of $k+1$ pages and $k+1$ lemmas. To avoid being on its own-numbered page, lemma $k+1$ has to be somewhere in the first $k$ pages, and to keep the lemmas in sequence, no other lemma can go on page $k+1$.



                  We therefore have to fit all $k+1$ lemmas onto the first $k$ pages. By $P_k$, this puts at least one of them on its own-numbered page.



                  So wherever lemma $k+1$ is, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page.



                  Clearly this remains true if we add more lemmas without adding more pages. That is, with $k+1$ pages and $ge k+1$ lemmas, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page: ie $P_{k+1}$ holds. That is, if $P_n$ is true for $n=k$, it is also true for $n=k+1$.



                  Now consider the case of $1$ page and $ge 1$ lemmas. Clearly lemma 1 is on page 1, so $P_1$ is true. Therefore, by induction, $P_n$ is true for all $nge 1$.



                  Finally, putting $n=100$ proves the case in the original question.






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    1












                    1








                    1






                    Here's a slightly amended proof by induction, which I hope will make the induction step more obvious.



                    Let $P_n$ be the proposition that for a book with $n$ sequentially numbered pages and $n$ or more sequentially numbered lemmas, at least one lemma is on a page with the same number as the lemma.



                    Suppose $P_n$ is true for some $n=k$, and consider the case of $k+1$ pages and $k+1$ lemmas. To avoid being on its own-numbered page, lemma $k+1$ has to be somewhere in the first $k$ pages, and to keep the lemmas in sequence, no other lemma can go on page $k+1$.



                    We therefore have to fit all $k+1$ lemmas onto the first $k$ pages. By $P_k$, this puts at least one of them on its own-numbered page.



                    So wherever lemma $k+1$ is, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page.



                    Clearly this remains true if we add more lemmas without adding more pages. That is, with $k+1$ pages and $ge k+1$ lemmas, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page: ie $P_{k+1}$ holds. That is, if $P_n$ is true for $n=k$, it is also true for $n=k+1$.



                    Now consider the case of $1$ page and $ge 1$ lemmas. Clearly lemma 1 is on page 1, so $P_1$ is true. Therefore, by induction, $P_n$ is true for all $nge 1$.



                    Finally, putting $n=100$ proves the case in the original question.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Here's a slightly amended proof by induction, which I hope will make the induction step more obvious.



                    Let $P_n$ be the proposition that for a book with $n$ sequentially numbered pages and $n$ or more sequentially numbered lemmas, at least one lemma is on a page with the same number as the lemma.



                    Suppose $P_n$ is true for some $n=k$, and consider the case of $k+1$ pages and $k+1$ lemmas. To avoid being on its own-numbered page, lemma $k+1$ has to be somewhere in the first $k$ pages, and to keep the lemmas in sequence, no other lemma can go on page $k+1$.



                    We therefore have to fit all $k+1$ lemmas onto the first $k$ pages. By $P_k$, this puts at least one of them on its own-numbered page.



                    So wherever lemma $k+1$ is, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page.



                    Clearly this remains true if we add more lemmas without adding more pages. That is, with $k+1$ pages and $ge k+1$ lemmas, at least one lemma is on its own-numbered page: ie $P_{k+1}$ holds. That is, if $P_n$ is true for $n=k$, it is also true for $n=k+1$.



                    Now consider the case of $1$ page and $ge 1$ lemmas. Clearly lemma 1 is on page 1, so $P_1$ is true. Therefore, by induction, $P_n$ is true for all $nge 1$.



                    Finally, putting $n=100$ proves the case in the original question.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Nov 28 '18 at 15:59

























                    answered Nov 28 '18 at 15:24









                    timtfj

                    1,006318




                    1,006318























                        0














                        Another proof, this time not by induction.



                        [Edit: on being tidied up, this turned out to be basically an expanded version of the other proofs that don't use induction.]



                        Consider a book of $k$ lemmas and $k$ pages.



                        For $1le n le k$ and $ ninmathbb N$, let





                        • $p_n$ be the page number of the $n$th lemma


                        • $D_n=n-p_n$ be the difference between the lemma number and its page number.


                        We are asked to prove that for some $n$, $D_n=0$.



                        Suppose we have assigned pages to the first $n$ lemmas. The next lemma can be on either the same page as lemma $n$ or a later page, i.e.
                        $$p_{n+1}ge p_n$$
                        from which
                        $$D_{n+1}le D_n+1$$



                        That is, $D_n$ can't increase by more than $1$ between one lemma and the next.



                        If the first lemma is on the first page ($p_1=1$), or the last lemma is on the last page ($p_k=k$), we already have a lemma on its own-numbered page. So we need only consider the case where $p_1>1$ and $p_k<k$, making $D_1<0$ and $D_k>0$.



                        $D_n$ must therefore increase from a negative value to a positive one somewhere between $n=1$ and $n=k$. But it can only increase in steps of $1$. So for $D_n$ to change sign, there must be a value of $n$ for which $D_n=0$, ie for which lemma $n$ is on page $n$.



                        There is therefore at least one lemma on a page with the same number as the lemma.






                        share|cite|improve this answer




























                          0














                          Another proof, this time not by induction.



                          [Edit: on being tidied up, this turned out to be basically an expanded version of the other proofs that don't use induction.]



                          Consider a book of $k$ lemmas and $k$ pages.



                          For $1le n le k$ and $ ninmathbb N$, let





                          • $p_n$ be the page number of the $n$th lemma


                          • $D_n=n-p_n$ be the difference between the lemma number and its page number.


                          We are asked to prove that for some $n$, $D_n=0$.



                          Suppose we have assigned pages to the first $n$ lemmas. The next lemma can be on either the same page as lemma $n$ or a later page, i.e.
                          $$p_{n+1}ge p_n$$
                          from which
                          $$D_{n+1}le D_n+1$$



                          That is, $D_n$ can't increase by more than $1$ between one lemma and the next.



                          If the first lemma is on the first page ($p_1=1$), or the last lemma is on the last page ($p_k=k$), we already have a lemma on its own-numbered page. So we need only consider the case where $p_1>1$ and $p_k<k$, making $D_1<0$ and $D_k>0$.



                          $D_n$ must therefore increase from a negative value to a positive one somewhere between $n=1$ and $n=k$. But it can only increase in steps of $1$. So for $D_n$ to change sign, there must be a value of $n$ for which $D_n=0$, ie for which lemma $n$ is on page $n$.



                          There is therefore at least one lemma on a page with the same number as the lemma.






                          share|cite|improve this answer


























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            Another proof, this time not by induction.



                            [Edit: on being tidied up, this turned out to be basically an expanded version of the other proofs that don't use induction.]



                            Consider a book of $k$ lemmas and $k$ pages.



                            For $1le n le k$ and $ ninmathbb N$, let





                            • $p_n$ be the page number of the $n$th lemma


                            • $D_n=n-p_n$ be the difference between the lemma number and its page number.


                            We are asked to prove that for some $n$, $D_n=0$.



                            Suppose we have assigned pages to the first $n$ lemmas. The next lemma can be on either the same page as lemma $n$ or a later page, i.e.
                            $$p_{n+1}ge p_n$$
                            from which
                            $$D_{n+1}le D_n+1$$



                            That is, $D_n$ can't increase by more than $1$ between one lemma and the next.



                            If the first lemma is on the first page ($p_1=1$), or the last lemma is on the last page ($p_k=k$), we already have a lemma on its own-numbered page. So we need only consider the case where $p_1>1$ and $p_k<k$, making $D_1<0$ and $D_k>0$.



                            $D_n$ must therefore increase from a negative value to a positive one somewhere between $n=1$ and $n=k$. But it can only increase in steps of $1$. So for $D_n$ to change sign, there must be a value of $n$ for which $D_n=0$, ie for which lemma $n$ is on page $n$.



                            There is therefore at least one lemma on a page with the same number as the lemma.






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            Another proof, this time not by induction.



                            [Edit: on being tidied up, this turned out to be basically an expanded version of the other proofs that don't use induction.]



                            Consider a book of $k$ lemmas and $k$ pages.



                            For $1le n le k$ and $ ninmathbb N$, let





                            • $p_n$ be the page number of the $n$th lemma


                            • $D_n=n-p_n$ be the difference between the lemma number and its page number.


                            We are asked to prove that for some $n$, $D_n=0$.



                            Suppose we have assigned pages to the first $n$ lemmas. The next lemma can be on either the same page as lemma $n$ or a later page, i.e.
                            $$p_{n+1}ge p_n$$
                            from which
                            $$D_{n+1}le D_n+1$$



                            That is, $D_n$ can't increase by more than $1$ between one lemma and the next.



                            If the first lemma is on the first page ($p_1=1$), or the last lemma is on the last page ($p_k=k$), we already have a lemma on its own-numbered page. So we need only consider the case where $p_1>1$ and $p_k<k$, making $D_1<0$ and $D_k>0$.



                            $D_n$ must therefore increase from a negative value to a positive one somewhere between $n=1$ and $n=k$. But it can only increase in steps of $1$. So for $D_n$ to change sign, there must be a value of $n$ for which $D_n=0$, ie for which lemma $n$ is on page $n$.



                            There is therefore at least one lemma on a page with the same number as the lemma.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Dec 11 '18 at 16:34

























                            answered Dec 10 '18 at 20:59









                            timtfj

                            1,006318




                            1,006318






























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