Continuous map between $L^p$ spaces











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The following theorem appears in Appendix B of Rabinowitz' book Minimax Methods in Critical Point Theory:



Let $Omega subset Bbb{R}^n$ be bounded and $gin C(overline{Omega}times Bbb {R},Bbb {R})$ such that there exist constants $r,sge 1$ and $a_1,a_2ge 0$ such that for all $x in overline{Omega}, yin Bbb{R}$ $$|g(x,y)|le a_1 + a_2|y|^{r/s}$$
Then the map $varphi(x)mapsto g(x,varphi(x))$ belongs to $C(L^r(Omega),L^s(Omega))$.



In the proof, he says "To prove the continuity of this map, observe that it is continuous at $varphi$ if and only if $f(x,z(x)) = g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,varphi(x))$ is continuous at $z=0$. Therefore we can assume $varphi = 0$ and $g(x,0)=0$."



I don't understand how this assumpion can be made without loss of generality, and was unable to finish the proof without it. Any help would be appreciated.



Edit: I have found a partial answer in a different thread:
Continuity proof of a function between $L^p$ spaces



In the post it says:
Using the growth estimate, one can derive a similar estimate for $f$ of the form:
$$
|f(x,z(x))|leq A_1+A_2 |phi_0(x)|^{r/p}+A_3|z(x)|^{r/p}
$$



This would solve my problem, since the former two constants don't depend on $z$ and can be thrown together, leaving the case that was already proven. However, I couldn't derive this estimate.



edit2: I was wrong in assuming this solves the problem since, as pointed out by the users supinf and Peter Melech, the constant may not depend on x.










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    up vote
    6
    down vote

    favorite
    3












    The following theorem appears in Appendix B of Rabinowitz' book Minimax Methods in Critical Point Theory:



    Let $Omega subset Bbb{R}^n$ be bounded and $gin C(overline{Omega}times Bbb {R},Bbb {R})$ such that there exist constants $r,sge 1$ and $a_1,a_2ge 0$ such that for all $x in overline{Omega}, yin Bbb{R}$ $$|g(x,y)|le a_1 + a_2|y|^{r/s}$$
    Then the map $varphi(x)mapsto g(x,varphi(x))$ belongs to $C(L^r(Omega),L^s(Omega))$.



    In the proof, he says "To prove the continuity of this map, observe that it is continuous at $varphi$ if and only if $f(x,z(x)) = g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,varphi(x))$ is continuous at $z=0$. Therefore we can assume $varphi = 0$ and $g(x,0)=0$."



    I don't understand how this assumpion can be made without loss of generality, and was unable to finish the proof without it. Any help would be appreciated.



    Edit: I have found a partial answer in a different thread:
    Continuity proof of a function between $L^p$ spaces



    In the post it says:
    Using the growth estimate, one can derive a similar estimate for $f$ of the form:
    $$
    |f(x,z(x))|leq A_1+A_2 |phi_0(x)|^{r/p}+A_3|z(x)|^{r/p}
    $$



    This would solve my problem, since the former two constants don't depend on $z$ and can be thrown together, leaving the case that was already proven. However, I couldn't derive this estimate.



    edit2: I was wrong in assuming this solves the problem since, as pointed out by the users supinf and Peter Melech, the constant may not depend on x.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      6
      down vote

      favorite
      3









      up vote
      6
      down vote

      favorite
      3






      3





      The following theorem appears in Appendix B of Rabinowitz' book Minimax Methods in Critical Point Theory:



      Let $Omega subset Bbb{R}^n$ be bounded and $gin C(overline{Omega}times Bbb {R},Bbb {R})$ such that there exist constants $r,sge 1$ and $a_1,a_2ge 0$ such that for all $x in overline{Omega}, yin Bbb{R}$ $$|g(x,y)|le a_1 + a_2|y|^{r/s}$$
      Then the map $varphi(x)mapsto g(x,varphi(x))$ belongs to $C(L^r(Omega),L^s(Omega))$.



      In the proof, he says "To prove the continuity of this map, observe that it is continuous at $varphi$ if and only if $f(x,z(x)) = g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,varphi(x))$ is continuous at $z=0$. Therefore we can assume $varphi = 0$ and $g(x,0)=0$."



      I don't understand how this assumpion can be made without loss of generality, and was unable to finish the proof without it. Any help would be appreciated.



      Edit: I have found a partial answer in a different thread:
      Continuity proof of a function between $L^p$ spaces



      In the post it says:
      Using the growth estimate, one can derive a similar estimate for $f$ of the form:
      $$
      |f(x,z(x))|leq A_1+A_2 |phi_0(x)|^{r/p}+A_3|z(x)|^{r/p}
      $$



      This would solve my problem, since the former two constants don't depend on $z$ and can be thrown together, leaving the case that was already proven. However, I couldn't derive this estimate.



      edit2: I was wrong in assuming this solves the problem since, as pointed out by the users supinf and Peter Melech, the constant may not depend on x.










      share|cite|improve this question















      The following theorem appears in Appendix B of Rabinowitz' book Minimax Methods in Critical Point Theory:



      Let $Omega subset Bbb{R}^n$ be bounded and $gin C(overline{Omega}times Bbb {R},Bbb {R})$ such that there exist constants $r,sge 1$ and $a_1,a_2ge 0$ such that for all $x in overline{Omega}, yin Bbb{R}$ $$|g(x,y)|le a_1 + a_2|y|^{r/s}$$
      Then the map $varphi(x)mapsto g(x,varphi(x))$ belongs to $C(L^r(Omega),L^s(Omega))$.



      In the proof, he says "To prove the continuity of this map, observe that it is continuous at $varphi$ if and only if $f(x,z(x)) = g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,varphi(x))$ is continuous at $z=0$. Therefore we can assume $varphi = 0$ and $g(x,0)=0$."



      I don't understand how this assumpion can be made without loss of generality, and was unable to finish the proof without it. Any help would be appreciated.



      Edit: I have found a partial answer in a different thread:
      Continuity proof of a function between $L^p$ spaces



      In the post it says:
      Using the growth estimate, one can derive a similar estimate for $f$ of the form:
      $$
      |f(x,z(x))|leq A_1+A_2 |phi_0(x)|^{r/p}+A_3|z(x)|^{r/p}
      $$



      This would solve my problem, since the former two constants don't depend on $z$ and can be thrown together, leaving the case that was already proven. However, I couldn't derive this estimate.



      edit2: I was wrong in assuming this solves the problem since, as pointed out by the users supinf and Peter Melech, the constant may not depend on x.







      real-analysis functional-analysis analysis lp-spaces






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      edited Nov 19 at 21:30

























      asked Nov 19 at 15:55









      J. Snow

      314




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          For $xinoverline{Omega}$ and $frac{r}{s}geq 1$ You get
          $$|f(x,z(x))|=|g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,phi(x))|leq a_1+a_2|z(x)+varphi|^{frac{r}{s}}+a_1+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq$$
          $$2a_1+a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}(|z(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}})+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq $$
          $$underbrace{2a_1}_{=A_1}+underbrace{(a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}+a_2)}_{=A_2}|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+underbrace{a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}}_{=A_3}|z(x)|^frac{r}{s}$$
          where You used that $(frac{a+b}{2})^{frac{r}{s}}leqfrac{a^frac{r}{s}+b^frac{r}{s}}{2}$ which holds by the convexity of $xmapsto x^{frac{r}{s}}$ and Jensen's inequality. In the case $frac{r}{s}<1$ You can proceed analogously using $(a+b)^{frac{r}{s}}leq a^{frac{r}{s}}+b^{frac{r}{s}}$ valid in this range.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 2




            How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
            – supinf
            Nov 19 at 19:48






          • 1




            Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
            – Peter Melech
            Nov 19 at 19:53












          • You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
            – J. Snow
            Nov 19 at 21:27











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          For $xinoverline{Omega}$ and $frac{r}{s}geq 1$ You get
          $$|f(x,z(x))|=|g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,phi(x))|leq a_1+a_2|z(x)+varphi|^{frac{r}{s}}+a_1+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq$$
          $$2a_1+a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}(|z(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}})+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq $$
          $$underbrace{2a_1}_{=A_1}+underbrace{(a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}+a_2)}_{=A_2}|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+underbrace{a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}}_{=A_3}|z(x)|^frac{r}{s}$$
          where You used that $(frac{a+b}{2})^{frac{r}{s}}leqfrac{a^frac{r}{s}+b^frac{r}{s}}{2}$ which holds by the convexity of $xmapsto x^{frac{r}{s}}$ and Jensen's inequality. In the case $frac{r}{s}<1$ You can proceed analogously using $(a+b)^{frac{r}{s}}leq a^{frac{r}{s}}+b^{frac{r}{s}}$ valid in this range.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 2




            How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
            – supinf
            Nov 19 at 19:48






          • 1




            Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
            – Peter Melech
            Nov 19 at 19:53












          • You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
            – J. Snow
            Nov 19 at 21:27















          up vote
          4
          down vote













          For $xinoverline{Omega}$ and $frac{r}{s}geq 1$ You get
          $$|f(x,z(x))|=|g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,phi(x))|leq a_1+a_2|z(x)+varphi|^{frac{r}{s}}+a_1+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq$$
          $$2a_1+a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}(|z(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}})+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq $$
          $$underbrace{2a_1}_{=A_1}+underbrace{(a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}+a_2)}_{=A_2}|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+underbrace{a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}}_{=A_3}|z(x)|^frac{r}{s}$$
          where You used that $(frac{a+b}{2})^{frac{r}{s}}leqfrac{a^frac{r}{s}+b^frac{r}{s}}{2}$ which holds by the convexity of $xmapsto x^{frac{r}{s}}$ and Jensen's inequality. In the case $frac{r}{s}<1$ You can proceed analogously using $(a+b)^{frac{r}{s}}leq a^{frac{r}{s}}+b^{frac{r}{s}}$ valid in this range.






          share|cite|improve this answer

















          • 2




            How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
            – supinf
            Nov 19 at 19:48






          • 1




            Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
            – Peter Melech
            Nov 19 at 19:53












          • You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
            – J. Snow
            Nov 19 at 21:27













          up vote
          4
          down vote










          up vote
          4
          down vote









          For $xinoverline{Omega}$ and $frac{r}{s}geq 1$ You get
          $$|f(x,z(x))|=|g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,phi(x))|leq a_1+a_2|z(x)+varphi|^{frac{r}{s}}+a_1+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq$$
          $$2a_1+a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}(|z(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}})+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq $$
          $$underbrace{2a_1}_{=A_1}+underbrace{(a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}+a_2)}_{=A_2}|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+underbrace{a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}}_{=A_3}|z(x)|^frac{r}{s}$$
          where You used that $(frac{a+b}{2})^{frac{r}{s}}leqfrac{a^frac{r}{s}+b^frac{r}{s}}{2}$ which holds by the convexity of $xmapsto x^{frac{r}{s}}$ and Jensen's inequality. In the case $frac{r}{s}<1$ You can proceed analogously using $(a+b)^{frac{r}{s}}leq a^{frac{r}{s}}+b^{frac{r}{s}}$ valid in this range.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          For $xinoverline{Omega}$ and $frac{r}{s}geq 1$ You get
          $$|f(x,z(x))|=|g(x,z(x)+varphi(x))-g(x,phi(x))|leq a_1+a_2|z(x)+varphi|^{frac{r}{s}}+a_1+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq$$
          $$2a_1+a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}(|z(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}})+a_2|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}leq $$
          $$underbrace{2a_1}_{=A_1}+underbrace{(a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}+a_2)}_{=A_2}|varphi(x)|^{frac{r}{s}}+underbrace{a_22^{frac{r}{s}-1}}_{=A_3}|z(x)|^frac{r}{s}$$
          where You used that $(frac{a+b}{2})^{frac{r}{s}}leqfrac{a^frac{r}{s}+b^frac{r}{s}}{2}$ which holds by the convexity of $xmapsto x^{frac{r}{s}}$ and Jensen's inequality. In the case $frac{r}{s}<1$ You can proceed analogously using $(a+b)^{frac{r}{s}}leq a^{frac{r}{s}}+b^{frac{r}{s}}$ valid in this range.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 19 at 19:30









          Peter Melech

          2,519813




          2,519813








          • 2




            How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
            – supinf
            Nov 19 at 19:48






          • 1




            Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
            – Peter Melech
            Nov 19 at 19:53












          • You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
            – J. Snow
            Nov 19 at 21:27














          • 2




            How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
            – supinf
            Nov 19 at 19:48






          • 1




            Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
            – Peter Melech
            Nov 19 at 19:53












          • You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
            – J. Snow
            Nov 19 at 21:27








          2




          2




          How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
          – supinf
          Nov 19 at 19:48




          How would this help? You still have dependence on $x$ in the inequality for $f$, whereas you dont have dependence on $x$ in the assumption for $g$.
          – supinf
          Nov 19 at 19:48




          1




          1




          Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
          – Peter Melech
          Nov 19 at 19:53






          Yes, I think so too and this is just an answer to the OP's question concerning the derivation of this estimate. To proceed further one has to argue via dominated convergence as in the question quoted by the OP and " Therefor we can assume $varphi=0$... in Rabinowitz's book seems to be not correct or at least quite sloppy
          – Peter Melech
          Nov 19 at 19:53














          You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
          – J. Snow
          Nov 19 at 21:27




          You are correct, this alone doesn't solve the problem.
          – J. Snow
          Nov 19 at 21:27


















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