operator norm of $f$ defined as follows $(f(u))_n = v_n = u_{n+1} - u_n,$












1












$begingroup$


let $l^{infty}$ be the vector space of bounded sequences equipped with the norm $|u| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n|$



and let $f$ be an endomorphism on $l^{infty}$ defined as follows $f(u) = v$



where $v = (v_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}, text{and}, v_n = u_{n+1} - u_n$



we have $|f(u)| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_{n+1} - u_n| leq 2 sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n| = 2|u|$



therefore $f$ is continuous



we also have $|f| leq 2$



on the other hand, for $w_n = frac{1}{n^k}$ we have $frac{|f(w)|}{|w|} = frac{2^k-1}{2^{k}}$



which for large $k$ approaches $1$



therefore $1 leq |f| leq 2$



this is the best approximation of the norm that I could get, any tips or help for computing the exact value of the norm are welcome. thanks !










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    let $l^{infty}$ be the vector space of bounded sequences equipped with the norm $|u| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n|$



    and let $f$ be an endomorphism on $l^{infty}$ defined as follows $f(u) = v$



    where $v = (v_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}, text{and}, v_n = u_{n+1} - u_n$



    we have $|f(u)| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_{n+1} - u_n| leq 2 sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n| = 2|u|$



    therefore $f$ is continuous



    we also have $|f| leq 2$



    on the other hand, for $w_n = frac{1}{n^k}$ we have $frac{|f(w)|}{|w|} = frac{2^k-1}{2^{k}}$



    which for large $k$ approaches $1$



    therefore $1 leq |f| leq 2$



    this is the best approximation of the norm that I could get, any tips or help for computing the exact value of the norm are welcome. thanks !










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      let $l^{infty}$ be the vector space of bounded sequences equipped with the norm $|u| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n|$



      and let $f$ be an endomorphism on $l^{infty}$ defined as follows $f(u) = v$



      where $v = (v_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}, text{and}, v_n = u_{n+1} - u_n$



      we have $|f(u)| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_{n+1} - u_n| leq 2 sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n| = 2|u|$



      therefore $f$ is continuous



      we also have $|f| leq 2$



      on the other hand, for $w_n = frac{1}{n^k}$ we have $frac{|f(w)|}{|w|} = frac{2^k-1}{2^{k}}$



      which for large $k$ approaches $1$



      therefore $1 leq |f| leq 2$



      this is the best approximation of the norm that I could get, any tips or help for computing the exact value of the norm are welcome. thanks !










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      let $l^{infty}$ be the vector space of bounded sequences equipped with the norm $|u| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n|$



      and let $f$ be an endomorphism on $l^{infty}$ defined as follows $f(u) = v$



      where $v = (v_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}, text{and}, v_n = u_{n+1} - u_n$



      we have $|f(u)| = sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_{n+1} - u_n| leq 2 sup_{n in mathbb{N}} |u_n| = 2|u|$



      therefore $f$ is continuous



      we also have $|f| leq 2$



      on the other hand, for $w_n = frac{1}{n^k}$ we have $frac{|f(w)|}{|w|} = frac{2^k-1}{2^{k}}$



      which for large $k$ approaches $1$



      therefore $1 leq |f| leq 2$



      this is the best approximation of the norm that I could get, any tips or help for computing the exact value of the norm are welcome. thanks !







      sequences-and-series functional-analysis operator-theory






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      asked Dec 26 '18 at 10:10









      rapidracimrapidracim

      1,7191419




      1,7191419






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          You should try the sequence $(-1,1,0,0,0,0,0,dots)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            active

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            $begingroup$

            You should try the sequence $(-1,1,0,0,0,0,0,dots)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              You should try the sequence $(-1,1,0,0,0,0,0,dots)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                You should try the sequence $(-1,1,0,0,0,0,0,dots)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                You should try the sequence $(-1,1,0,0,0,0,0,dots)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 26 '18 at 10:17









                PhoemueXPhoemueX

                27.5k22457




                27.5k22457






























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