Bounds on the second derivative of a convex function.












1












$begingroup$


Edit: This question was answered in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/how-bad-can-the-second-derivative-of-a-convex-function-be





Let $a<b$ and suppose that $f:(a,b)to mathbb{R}$ is a increasing convex function. From the Alexandrov’s theorem, $f$ is twice differentiable almost everywhere. My question is the following




Does $f''in L_{loc}^1(a,b)$?




If the answer to the previous question is negative, consider the set



$$
A={xin (a,b): mbox{there is no} delta>0, mbox{such that} fin L^1(x-delta,x+delta)}.
$$




What is the measure of $A$?




No ideas up to now. Any reference is appreciated.



For an accessible reference, take a look here.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I know that this is an old question, but I would like to drop a comment. I guess that we have something like $f'(d) - f'(c) ge int_c^d f''(x) , mathrm{d}x ge 0$ for $[c,d] subset (a,b)$. This should give your assertion.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36










  • $begingroup$
    Or speaking differently: The second derivative of a convex function can be identified with a positive distribution, i.e., a measure. Then, your $f''$ should be the absolutely continuous part of this measure. Again, it belongs to $L^1_{text{loc}}(a,b)$.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36












  • $begingroup$
    @gerw take a look in mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/…
    $endgroup$
    – Tomás
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    I didn't know that this question was crossposted. You should link both questions.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:21
















1












$begingroup$


Edit: This question was answered in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/how-bad-can-the-second-derivative-of-a-convex-function-be





Let $a<b$ and suppose that $f:(a,b)to mathbb{R}$ is a increasing convex function. From the Alexandrov’s theorem, $f$ is twice differentiable almost everywhere. My question is the following




Does $f''in L_{loc}^1(a,b)$?




If the answer to the previous question is negative, consider the set



$$
A={xin (a,b): mbox{there is no} delta>0, mbox{such that} fin L^1(x-delta,x+delta)}.
$$




What is the measure of $A$?




No ideas up to now. Any reference is appreciated.



For an accessible reference, take a look here.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I know that this is an old question, but I would like to drop a comment. I guess that we have something like $f'(d) - f'(c) ge int_c^d f''(x) , mathrm{d}x ge 0$ for $[c,d] subset (a,b)$. This should give your assertion.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36










  • $begingroup$
    Or speaking differently: The second derivative of a convex function can be identified with a positive distribution, i.e., a measure. Then, your $f''$ should be the absolutely continuous part of this measure. Again, it belongs to $L^1_{text{loc}}(a,b)$.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36












  • $begingroup$
    @gerw take a look in mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/…
    $endgroup$
    – Tomás
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    I didn't know that this question was crossposted. You should link both questions.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:21














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Edit: This question was answered in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/how-bad-can-the-second-derivative-of-a-convex-function-be





Let $a<b$ and suppose that $f:(a,b)to mathbb{R}$ is a increasing convex function. From the Alexandrov’s theorem, $f$ is twice differentiable almost everywhere. My question is the following




Does $f''in L_{loc}^1(a,b)$?




If the answer to the previous question is negative, consider the set



$$
A={xin (a,b): mbox{there is no} delta>0, mbox{such that} fin L^1(x-delta,x+delta)}.
$$




What is the measure of $A$?




No ideas up to now. Any reference is appreciated.



For an accessible reference, take a look here.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Edit: This question was answered in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/how-bad-can-the-second-derivative-of-a-convex-function-be





Let $a<b$ and suppose that $f:(a,b)to mathbb{R}$ is a increasing convex function. From the Alexandrov’s theorem, $f$ is twice differentiable almost everywhere. My question is the following




Does $f''in L_{loc}^1(a,b)$?




If the answer to the previous question is negative, consider the set



$$
A={xin (a,b): mbox{there is no} delta>0, mbox{such that} fin L^1(x-delta,x+delta)}.
$$




What is the measure of $A$?




No ideas up to now. Any reference is appreciated.



For an accessible reference, take a look here.







real-analysis measure-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 4 '18 at 15:12







Tomás

















asked Mar 20 '17 at 18:03









TomásTomás

15.8k32177




15.8k32177












  • $begingroup$
    I know that this is an old question, but I would like to drop a comment. I guess that we have something like $f'(d) - f'(c) ge int_c^d f''(x) , mathrm{d}x ge 0$ for $[c,d] subset (a,b)$. This should give your assertion.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36










  • $begingroup$
    Or speaking differently: The second derivative of a convex function can be identified with a positive distribution, i.e., a measure. Then, your $f''$ should be the absolutely continuous part of this measure. Again, it belongs to $L^1_{text{loc}}(a,b)$.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36












  • $begingroup$
    @gerw take a look in mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/…
    $endgroup$
    – Tomás
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    I didn't know that this question was crossposted. You should link both questions.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:21


















  • $begingroup$
    I know that this is an old question, but I would like to drop a comment. I guess that we have something like $f'(d) - f'(c) ge int_c^d f''(x) , mathrm{d}x ge 0$ for $[c,d] subset (a,b)$. This should give your assertion.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36










  • $begingroup$
    Or speaking differently: The second derivative of a convex function can be identified with a positive distribution, i.e., a measure. Then, your $f''$ should be the absolutely continuous part of this measure. Again, it belongs to $L^1_{text{loc}}(a,b)$.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Nov 22 '18 at 12:36












  • $begingroup$
    @gerw take a look in mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/…
    $endgroup$
    – Tomás
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    I didn't know that this question was crossposted. You should link both questions.
    $endgroup$
    – gerw
    Dec 3 '18 at 20:21
















$begingroup$
I know that this is an old question, but I would like to drop a comment. I guess that we have something like $f'(d) - f'(c) ge int_c^d f''(x) , mathrm{d}x ge 0$ for $[c,d] subset (a,b)$. This should give your assertion.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Nov 22 '18 at 12:36




$begingroup$
I know that this is an old question, but I would like to drop a comment. I guess that we have something like $f'(d) - f'(c) ge int_c^d f''(x) , mathrm{d}x ge 0$ for $[c,d] subset (a,b)$. This should give your assertion.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Nov 22 '18 at 12:36












$begingroup$
Or speaking differently: The second derivative of a convex function can be identified with a positive distribution, i.e., a measure. Then, your $f''$ should be the absolutely continuous part of this measure. Again, it belongs to $L^1_{text{loc}}(a,b)$.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Nov 22 '18 at 12:36






$begingroup$
Or speaking differently: The second derivative of a convex function can be identified with a positive distribution, i.e., a measure. Then, your $f''$ should be the absolutely continuous part of this measure. Again, it belongs to $L^1_{text{loc}}(a,b)$.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Nov 22 '18 at 12:36














$begingroup$
@gerw take a look in mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/…
$endgroup$
– Tomás
Dec 3 '18 at 20:01




$begingroup$
@gerw take a look in mathoverflow.net/questions/265256/…
$endgroup$
– Tomás
Dec 3 '18 at 20:01












$begingroup$
I didn't know that this question was crossposted. You should link both questions.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 3 '18 at 20:21




$begingroup$
I didn't know that this question was crossposted. You should link both questions.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Dec 3 '18 at 20:21










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