Proving $(x^4-y^4) cos (frac{1}{leftlVert (x,y) rightrVert^3_2})$ is totally differentiable











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How can one prove, that this function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$ and not continuous partially differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$?



$$
f(x, y) := begin{cases} (x^4-y^4)cosleft(dfrac{1}{|(x,y)|^3_2}right), & (x, y) neq (0,0); \ 0, & (x, y) = (0, 0). end{cases}
$$



I know that to prove the total derivative one first has to check, whether this function is continuous and partially derivable, or not.



I also know that I can use the following formula to prove that a function is totally differentiable:



$$
dfrac{f(x, y) - f(0, 0) - left(left(dfrac{partial f}{partial x}right)(0, 0)left(dfrac{partial f}{partial y}right)(0, 0)right)cdotleft({x-0}atop{y-0}right)}{|(x, y) - (0, 0)|}
$$



If this formula gives a $0$, the function is totally differentiable.



I am stuck though, since I can't even find out if the function is continuous, or what the total derivative would be.



Can I substitute $x^4 = a $ and $y^4 = b$ and then we could follow:



$$(a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left|sqrt{sqrt{(x,y)}} right|^3_2}right) =$$



$$ = (a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left| sqrt{(x,y)} right|^1_2}right)$$



And then maybe l'Hospital (though I don't know how that would work for the denominator) and then calculating the limit for $ntoinfty$, which would be $0cdot 1$ (I think, because $cosleft(frac{1}{x}right)to 1$ for $limtoinfty$), which gives us $0$, proving that the function is continuous.










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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite
    2












    How can one prove, that this function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$ and not continuous partially differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$?



    $$
    f(x, y) := begin{cases} (x^4-y^4)cosleft(dfrac{1}{|(x,y)|^3_2}right), & (x, y) neq (0,0); \ 0, & (x, y) = (0, 0). end{cases}
    $$



    I know that to prove the total derivative one first has to check, whether this function is continuous and partially derivable, or not.



    I also know that I can use the following formula to prove that a function is totally differentiable:



    $$
    dfrac{f(x, y) - f(0, 0) - left(left(dfrac{partial f}{partial x}right)(0, 0)left(dfrac{partial f}{partial y}right)(0, 0)right)cdotleft({x-0}atop{y-0}right)}{|(x, y) - (0, 0)|}
    $$



    If this formula gives a $0$, the function is totally differentiable.



    I am stuck though, since I can't even find out if the function is continuous, or what the total derivative would be.



    Can I substitute $x^4 = a $ and $y^4 = b$ and then we could follow:



    $$(a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left|sqrt{sqrt{(x,y)}} right|^3_2}right) =$$



    $$ = (a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left| sqrt{(x,y)} right|^1_2}right)$$



    And then maybe l'Hospital (though I don't know how that would work for the denominator) and then calculating the limit for $ntoinfty$, which would be $0cdot 1$ (I think, because $cosleft(frac{1}{x}right)to 1$ for $limtoinfty$), which gives us $0$, proving that the function is continuous.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
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      2





      How can one prove, that this function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$ and not continuous partially differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$?



      $$
      f(x, y) := begin{cases} (x^4-y^4)cosleft(dfrac{1}{|(x,y)|^3_2}right), & (x, y) neq (0,0); \ 0, & (x, y) = (0, 0). end{cases}
      $$



      I know that to prove the total derivative one first has to check, whether this function is continuous and partially derivable, or not.



      I also know that I can use the following formula to prove that a function is totally differentiable:



      $$
      dfrac{f(x, y) - f(0, 0) - left(left(dfrac{partial f}{partial x}right)(0, 0)left(dfrac{partial f}{partial y}right)(0, 0)right)cdotleft({x-0}atop{y-0}right)}{|(x, y) - (0, 0)|}
      $$



      If this formula gives a $0$, the function is totally differentiable.



      I am stuck though, since I can't even find out if the function is continuous, or what the total derivative would be.



      Can I substitute $x^4 = a $ and $y^4 = b$ and then we could follow:



      $$(a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left|sqrt{sqrt{(x,y)}} right|^3_2}right) =$$



      $$ = (a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left| sqrt{(x,y)} right|^1_2}right)$$



      And then maybe l'Hospital (though I don't know how that would work for the denominator) and then calculating the limit for $ntoinfty$, which would be $0cdot 1$ (I think, because $cosleft(frac{1}{x}right)to 1$ for $limtoinfty$), which gives us $0$, proving that the function is continuous.










      share|cite|improve this question















      How can one prove, that this function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$ and not continuous partially differentiable on $mathbb{R^2}$?



      $$
      f(x, y) := begin{cases} (x^4-y^4)cosleft(dfrac{1}{|(x,y)|^3_2}right), & (x, y) neq (0,0); \ 0, & (x, y) = (0, 0). end{cases}
      $$



      I know that to prove the total derivative one first has to check, whether this function is continuous and partially derivable, or not.



      I also know that I can use the following formula to prove that a function is totally differentiable:



      $$
      dfrac{f(x, y) - f(0, 0) - left(left(dfrac{partial f}{partial x}right)(0, 0)left(dfrac{partial f}{partial y}right)(0, 0)right)cdotleft({x-0}atop{y-0}right)}{|(x, y) - (0, 0)|}
      $$



      If this formula gives a $0$, the function is totally differentiable.



      I am stuck though, since I can't even find out if the function is continuous, or what the total derivative would be.



      Can I substitute $x^4 = a $ and $y^4 = b$ and then we could follow:



      $$(a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left|sqrt{sqrt{(x,y)}} right|^3_2}right) =$$



      $$ = (a-b)cosleft(frac{1}{left| sqrt{(x,y)} right|^1_2}right)$$



      And then maybe l'Hospital (though I don't know how that would work for the denominator) and then calculating the limit for $ntoinfty$, which would be $0cdot 1$ (I think, because $cosleft(frac{1}{x}right)to 1$ for $limtoinfty$), which gives us $0$, proving that the function is continuous.







      analysis functions derivatives continuity partial-derivative






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      edited Nov 15 at 4:58









      m0nhawk

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      asked Nov 8 at 20:54









      JavaTeachMe2018

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          First of the function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R}^*$



          Next it is continuous around $(0,0)$ because $$|f(x,y)| < x^4+y^4$$



          therefore $$lim_{(x,y)rightarrow(0,0)}f(x,y)=0$$



          so f is continuous in $(0,0)$ and $f(0,0) = 0$



          Next the gradient of $f$ is



          $$partial_xf = 4x^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}xsinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



          $$partial_yf = -4y^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}ysinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



          so we expect that it is totally differentiable at $(0,0)$ and that $nabla f(0,0) = (0,0)$



          This is indeed true because



          $$left|frac{f(x,y)}{(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}}right| = left|(x^2-y^2)(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)right| leq (x^2+y^2)^{3/2} rightarrow_{(x,y)rightarrow (0,0)} 0$$






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            First of the function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R}^*$



            Next it is continuous around $(0,0)$ because $$|f(x,y)| < x^4+y^4$$



            therefore $$lim_{(x,y)rightarrow(0,0)}f(x,y)=0$$



            so f is continuous in $(0,0)$ and $f(0,0) = 0$



            Next the gradient of $f$ is



            $$partial_xf = 4x^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}xsinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



            $$partial_yf = -4y^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}ysinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



            so we expect that it is totally differentiable at $(0,0)$ and that $nabla f(0,0) = (0,0)$



            This is indeed true because



            $$left|frac{f(x,y)}{(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}}right| = left|(x^2-y^2)(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)right| leq (x^2+y^2)^{3/2} rightarrow_{(x,y)rightarrow (0,0)} 0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted
              +100










              First of the function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R}^*$



              Next it is continuous around $(0,0)$ because $$|f(x,y)| < x^4+y^4$$



              therefore $$lim_{(x,y)rightarrow(0,0)}f(x,y)=0$$



              so f is continuous in $(0,0)$ and $f(0,0) = 0$



              Next the gradient of $f$ is



              $$partial_xf = 4x^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}xsinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



              $$partial_yf = -4y^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}ysinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



              so we expect that it is totally differentiable at $(0,0)$ and that $nabla f(0,0) = (0,0)$



              This is indeed true because



              $$left|frac{f(x,y)}{(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}}right| = left|(x^2-y^2)(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)right| leq (x^2+y^2)^{3/2} rightarrow_{(x,y)rightarrow (0,0)} 0$$






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted
                +100







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted
                +100




                +100




                First of the function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R}^*$



                Next it is continuous around $(0,0)$ because $$|f(x,y)| < x^4+y^4$$



                therefore $$lim_{(x,y)rightarrow(0,0)}f(x,y)=0$$



                so f is continuous in $(0,0)$ and $f(0,0) = 0$



                Next the gradient of $f$ is



                $$partial_xf = 4x^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}xsinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



                $$partial_yf = -4y^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}ysinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



                so we expect that it is totally differentiable at $(0,0)$ and that $nabla f(0,0) = (0,0)$



                This is indeed true because



                $$left|frac{f(x,y)}{(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}}right| = left|(x^2-y^2)(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)right| leq (x^2+y^2)^{3/2} rightarrow_{(x,y)rightarrow (0,0)} 0$$






                share|cite|improve this answer














                First of the function is totally differentiable on $mathbb{R}^*$



                Next it is continuous around $(0,0)$ because $$|f(x,y)| < x^4+y^4$$



                therefore $$lim_{(x,y)rightarrow(0,0)}f(x,y)=0$$



                so f is continuous in $(0,0)$ and $f(0,0) = 0$



                Next the gradient of $f$ is



                $$partial_xf = 4x^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}xsinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



                $$partial_yf = -4y^3cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)-3(x^4-y^4)(x^2+y^2)^{-5/2}ysinleft((x^2+y+2)^{-3/2}right)$$



                so we expect that it is totally differentiable at $(0,0)$ and that $nabla f(0,0) = (0,0)$



                This is indeed true because



                $$left|frac{f(x,y)}{(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}}right| = left|(x^2-y^2)(x^2+y^2)^{1/2}cosleft((x^2+y^2)^{-3/2}right)right| leq (x^2+y^2)^{3/2} rightarrow_{(x,y)rightarrow (0,0)} 0$$







                share|cite|improve this answer














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                edited Nov 15 at 4:23

























                answered Nov 15 at 4:07









                Ezy

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