Evaluate $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz$ in the circle $|z|=5$
Evaluate $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz$ in the circle $|z|=5$
I want to check that if my solution is correct.
Since $1/z$ is not analytic at $z=0$ and $1/(z-i)^3$ is not analytic at $z=i$, hence the function $f(z) =frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}$ has singularities at $z=0$ and $z=3$.
Notice that both of them are inside the circle $|z|=5$.
So we can use residue at infinity to evaluate this integral.
We have:
$f(1/z)= frac{e^z}{(1/z-i)^3} = frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3} implies frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3}.$
We must find the residue of $frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $z=0$. But notice that this function is analytic at this point. Hence its Laurent expansion is equal to its Taylor expansion. Its principal part is then zero, so we have
$mbox{Res}_{z = 0}frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = 0$.
So, finally: $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz = 2pi i*0 = 0.$
Is this solution correct? I am asking because I did not need to find any series expansion!
complex-analysis proof-verification
add a comment |
Evaluate $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz$ in the circle $|z|=5$
I want to check that if my solution is correct.
Since $1/z$ is not analytic at $z=0$ and $1/(z-i)^3$ is not analytic at $z=i$, hence the function $f(z) =frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}$ has singularities at $z=0$ and $z=3$.
Notice that both of them are inside the circle $|z|=5$.
So we can use residue at infinity to evaluate this integral.
We have:
$f(1/z)= frac{e^z}{(1/z-i)^3} = frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3} implies frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3}.$
We must find the residue of $frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $z=0$. But notice that this function is analytic at this point. Hence its Laurent expansion is equal to its Taylor expansion. Its principal part is then zero, so we have
$mbox{Res}_{z = 0}frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = 0$.
So, finally: $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz = 2pi i*0 = 0.$
Is this solution correct? I am asking because I did not need to find any series expansion!
complex-analysis proof-verification
1
Yes, this is ok. (Taking the residue at $infty$ is related to the integral on the curve $C$ taken with converse orientation, so as a joke, the result is $-0$.) Alternatively, one can make a change of variables $w=1/z$, this brings the given integral in one over the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$, with no singularity in $w=0$, and the singularity in $w=-i$ is outside the integral contour $C'$.
– dan_fulea
Nov 29 '18 at 18:39
add a comment |
Evaluate $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz$ in the circle $|z|=5$
I want to check that if my solution is correct.
Since $1/z$ is not analytic at $z=0$ and $1/(z-i)^3$ is not analytic at $z=i$, hence the function $f(z) =frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}$ has singularities at $z=0$ and $z=3$.
Notice that both of them are inside the circle $|z|=5$.
So we can use residue at infinity to evaluate this integral.
We have:
$f(1/z)= frac{e^z}{(1/z-i)^3} = frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3} implies frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3}.$
We must find the residue of $frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $z=0$. But notice that this function is analytic at this point. Hence its Laurent expansion is equal to its Taylor expansion. Its principal part is then zero, so we have
$mbox{Res}_{z = 0}frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = 0$.
So, finally: $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz = 2pi i*0 = 0.$
Is this solution correct? I am asking because I did not need to find any series expansion!
complex-analysis proof-verification
Evaluate $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz$ in the circle $|z|=5$
I want to check that if my solution is correct.
Since $1/z$ is not analytic at $z=0$ and $1/(z-i)^3$ is not analytic at $z=i$, hence the function $f(z) =frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}$ has singularities at $z=0$ and $z=3$.
Notice that both of them are inside the circle $|z|=5$.
So we can use residue at infinity to evaluate this integral.
We have:
$f(1/z)= frac{e^z}{(1/z-i)^3} = frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3} implies frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3}.$
We must find the residue of $frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z)$ at $z=0$. But notice that this function is analytic at this point. Hence its Laurent expansion is equal to its Taylor expansion. Its principal part is then zero, so we have
$mbox{Res}_{z = 0}frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z) = 0$.
So, finally: $int_C frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}dz = 2pi i*0 = 0.$
Is this solution correct? I am asking because I did not need to find any series expansion!
complex-analysis proof-verification
complex-analysis proof-verification
asked Nov 29 '18 at 18:13
math.h
1,122517
1,122517
1
Yes, this is ok. (Taking the residue at $infty$ is related to the integral on the curve $C$ taken with converse orientation, so as a joke, the result is $-0$.) Alternatively, one can make a change of variables $w=1/z$, this brings the given integral in one over the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$, with no singularity in $w=0$, and the singularity in $w=-i$ is outside the integral contour $C'$.
– dan_fulea
Nov 29 '18 at 18:39
add a comment |
1
Yes, this is ok. (Taking the residue at $infty$ is related to the integral on the curve $C$ taken with converse orientation, so as a joke, the result is $-0$.) Alternatively, one can make a change of variables $w=1/z$, this brings the given integral in one over the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$, with no singularity in $w=0$, and the singularity in $w=-i$ is outside the integral contour $C'$.
– dan_fulea
Nov 29 '18 at 18:39
1
1
Yes, this is ok. (Taking the residue at $infty$ is related to the integral on the curve $C$ taken with converse orientation, so as a joke, the result is $-0$.) Alternatively, one can make a change of variables $w=1/z$, this brings the given integral in one over the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$, with no singularity in $w=0$, and the singularity in $w=-i$ is outside the integral contour $C'$.
– dan_fulea
Nov 29 '18 at 18:39
Yes, this is ok. (Taking the residue at $infty$ is related to the integral on the curve $C$ taken with converse orientation, so as a joke, the result is $-0$.) Alternatively, one can make a change of variables $w=1/z$, this brings the given integral in one over the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$, with no singularity in $w=0$, and the singularity in $w=-i$ is outside the integral contour $C'$.
– dan_fulea
Nov 29 '18 at 18:39
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
Yes. Or use the following more general argument. Whenever the integrand is regular outside the contour, we can make the contour progressively larger (radius $R$) without altering the integral, by Cauchy's thm, and if the integrand is $o(1/R)$ on the contour we will always get zero, as by the Bounding Lemma the integral is less than circumference of contour $times$ maximum of integrand, which goes as $2pi R times o(1/R) to 0$. In effect this amounts to changing variable $zmapsto 1/z$ and using analyticity.
2
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
1
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
add a comment |
We have, $displaystyle fleft(frac 1zright)=frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3}$.
Now, $displaystyle Res(f(z),infty)=Resleft(frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z),0right)=Resleft(frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3},0right)=0 text{ as it is analytic at $z=0$.}$
Now, Sum of the residues at the finite poles and the residue at infinity is $0$.
So, $Res(f,0)+Res(f,i)=-Res(f,infty)=0.$
Therefore by Cauchy's residue Theorem integral value is $0$.
add a comment |
OK, i will type an answer, after the comment. The result $0$ is correct. We change variables, $w=1/z$. The contour $C$, circle with radius $5$ goes into the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$. Then we have
$$
begin{aligned}
int_Cfrac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}; dz
&=
int_{C'}frac{e^w}{left(frac 1w-iright)^3}; left(-frac 1{w^2}right);dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {w^3e^w}{w^2(1-iw)^3};dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {we^w}{(1-iw)^3};dw
.
end{aligned}
$$
There is no pole inside $C'$. (The pole $w=-i$ is outside.)
So the integral is zero, Residue Theorem.
Numerically, pari/gp:
? intnum( t=0, 2*Pi,
exp( (cos(t)-I*sin(t))/5 )
/ (5*(cos(t)+I*sin(t)) - I)^3
* 5*(-sin(t)+I*cos(t)) )
%1 = 1.4190890450537301016459116208947201222 E-21
- 1.9571617134379963221261930053722380946 E-21*I
(Manually broken lines to fit in the window.)
This is of course better than computing the two residues of the initial function (in $0$ and in $i$), which are in $i$...
sage: var('z');
sage: f = exp(1/z) / (z-i)^3
sage: f.residue(z==i)
(I + 1/2)*e^(-I)
computed with sage, and in $0$ with the hand
$$
begin{aligned}
&text{Coeff}_{1/z}
frac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}
\
&=
text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot e^{1/z}cdotfrac 1{(1+iz)^3}
\
&=text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot
left(
frac 1{0!}
+frac 1{1!}frac 1z
+frac 1{2!}frac 1{z^2}
+frac 1{3!}frac 1{z^3}
+dotsright)
\
&qquadcdot
left(
binom 22
+binom 32 (-iz)
+binom 42(-iz)^2
%+binom 52(-iz)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=
-ileft(
frac 1{1!}binom 22
+frac 1{2!}binom 32 (-i)
+frac 1{3!}binom 42 (-i)^2
%+frac 1{4!}binom 52 (-i)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=dots
end{aligned}
$$
and in the above sum each $frac 1{(n+1)!}binom{n+2}2
=frac 1{(n+1)!}cdotfrac{(n+2)!}{n!2!}=frac{(n+2)}{n!2!}$ has to be explained. We split the nummerator in two parts, one with $n$, one with $2$, and will get some parts of the exponential series in $-i$. One of them needs the aid of the missing $1/0!$, so it is acceptable that we get the killing contribution for the first residue.
add a comment |
I thought it might be instructive to present an approach that is equivalent to using the residue at infinity, but perhaps a bit simpler in this case. To that end we proceed.
Inasmuch as the singularities of the integrand lie inside the unit circle, Cauchy's Integral Theorem guarantees that for $R>5$
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz$$
Now, we have the simple estimate
$$begin{align}
left|oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dzright|&=left|int_0^{2pi} frac{e^{frac1Re^{-iphi}}}{(Re^{iphi}-i)^3},iRe^{iphi},dphiright|\\
&le frac{2pi R^2}{(R-1)^4}
end{align}$$
Finally, letting $Rto infty$, we find
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=0$$
And we are done!
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");
StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});
function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});
}
});
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3018976%2fevaluate-int-c-frace1-zz-i3dz-in-the-circle-z-5%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Yes. Or use the following more general argument. Whenever the integrand is regular outside the contour, we can make the contour progressively larger (radius $R$) without altering the integral, by Cauchy's thm, and if the integrand is $o(1/R)$ on the contour we will always get zero, as by the Bounding Lemma the integral is less than circumference of contour $times$ maximum of integrand, which goes as $2pi R times o(1/R) to 0$. In effect this amounts to changing variable $zmapsto 1/z$ and using analyticity.
2
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
1
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
add a comment |
Yes. Or use the following more general argument. Whenever the integrand is regular outside the contour, we can make the contour progressively larger (radius $R$) without altering the integral, by Cauchy's thm, and if the integrand is $o(1/R)$ on the contour we will always get zero, as by the Bounding Lemma the integral is less than circumference of contour $times$ maximum of integrand, which goes as $2pi R times o(1/R) to 0$. In effect this amounts to changing variable $zmapsto 1/z$ and using analyticity.
2
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
1
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
add a comment |
Yes. Or use the following more general argument. Whenever the integrand is regular outside the contour, we can make the contour progressively larger (radius $R$) without altering the integral, by Cauchy's thm, and if the integrand is $o(1/R)$ on the contour we will always get zero, as by the Bounding Lemma the integral is less than circumference of contour $times$ maximum of integrand, which goes as $2pi R times o(1/R) to 0$. In effect this amounts to changing variable $zmapsto 1/z$ and using analyticity.
Yes. Or use the following more general argument. Whenever the integrand is regular outside the contour, we can make the contour progressively larger (radius $R$) without altering the integral, by Cauchy's thm, and if the integrand is $o(1/R)$ on the contour we will always get zero, as by the Bounding Lemma the integral is less than circumference of contour $times$ maximum of integrand, which goes as $2pi R times o(1/R) to 0$. In effect this amounts to changing variable $zmapsto 1/z$ and using analyticity.
edited Nov 30 '18 at 11:32
answered Nov 29 '18 at 18:21
Richard Martin
1,61118
1,61118
2
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
1
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
add a comment |
2
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
1
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
2
2
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
The contour is fixed from the start.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:23
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
Well, how about using Cauchy's theorem.
– Richard Martin
Nov 29 '18 at 18:26
1
1
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Use it then. I will not try to stop you.
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 29 '18 at 18:27
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
Thought this was obvious but perhaps not ... see edits.
– Richard Martin
Nov 30 '18 at 11:34
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
@RichardMartin This is the approach that I often prefer over evaluating the residue at infinity. I've posted a solution that illustrates the approach for the integral of interest herein. (+1) and Happy Holidays!
– Mark Viola
Nov 30 '18 at 18:07
add a comment |
We have, $displaystyle fleft(frac 1zright)=frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3}$.
Now, $displaystyle Res(f(z),infty)=Resleft(frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z),0right)=Resleft(frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3},0right)=0 text{ as it is analytic at $z=0$.}$
Now, Sum of the residues at the finite poles and the residue at infinity is $0$.
So, $Res(f,0)+Res(f,i)=-Res(f,infty)=0.$
Therefore by Cauchy's residue Theorem integral value is $0$.
add a comment |
We have, $displaystyle fleft(frac 1zright)=frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3}$.
Now, $displaystyle Res(f(z),infty)=Resleft(frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z),0right)=Resleft(frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3},0right)=0 text{ as it is analytic at $z=0$.}$
Now, Sum of the residues at the finite poles and the residue at infinity is $0$.
So, $Res(f,0)+Res(f,i)=-Res(f,infty)=0.$
Therefore by Cauchy's residue Theorem integral value is $0$.
add a comment |
We have, $displaystyle fleft(frac 1zright)=frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3}$.
Now, $displaystyle Res(f(z),infty)=Resleft(frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z),0right)=Resleft(frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3},0right)=0 text{ as it is analytic at $z=0$.}$
Now, Sum of the residues at the finite poles and the residue at infinity is $0$.
So, $Res(f,0)+Res(f,i)=-Res(f,infty)=0.$
Therefore by Cauchy's residue Theorem integral value is $0$.
We have, $displaystyle fleft(frac 1zright)=frac{z^3e^z}{(1-iz)^3}$.
Now, $displaystyle Res(f(z),infty)=Resleft(frac{1}{z^2}f(1/z),0right)=Resleft(frac{ze^z}{(1-iz)^3},0right)=0 text{ as it is analytic at $z=0$.}$
Now, Sum of the residues at the finite poles and the residue at infinity is $0$.
So, $Res(f,0)+Res(f,i)=-Res(f,infty)=0.$
Therefore by Cauchy's residue Theorem integral value is $0$.
edited Nov 30 '18 at 17:27
answered Nov 30 '18 at 17:21
Empty
8,07752560
8,07752560
add a comment |
add a comment |
OK, i will type an answer, after the comment. The result $0$ is correct. We change variables, $w=1/z$. The contour $C$, circle with radius $5$ goes into the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$. Then we have
$$
begin{aligned}
int_Cfrac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}; dz
&=
int_{C'}frac{e^w}{left(frac 1w-iright)^3}; left(-frac 1{w^2}right);dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {w^3e^w}{w^2(1-iw)^3};dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {we^w}{(1-iw)^3};dw
.
end{aligned}
$$
There is no pole inside $C'$. (The pole $w=-i$ is outside.)
So the integral is zero, Residue Theorem.
Numerically, pari/gp:
? intnum( t=0, 2*Pi,
exp( (cos(t)-I*sin(t))/5 )
/ (5*(cos(t)+I*sin(t)) - I)^3
* 5*(-sin(t)+I*cos(t)) )
%1 = 1.4190890450537301016459116208947201222 E-21
- 1.9571617134379963221261930053722380946 E-21*I
(Manually broken lines to fit in the window.)
This is of course better than computing the two residues of the initial function (in $0$ and in $i$), which are in $i$...
sage: var('z');
sage: f = exp(1/z) / (z-i)^3
sage: f.residue(z==i)
(I + 1/2)*e^(-I)
computed with sage, and in $0$ with the hand
$$
begin{aligned}
&text{Coeff}_{1/z}
frac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}
\
&=
text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot e^{1/z}cdotfrac 1{(1+iz)^3}
\
&=text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot
left(
frac 1{0!}
+frac 1{1!}frac 1z
+frac 1{2!}frac 1{z^2}
+frac 1{3!}frac 1{z^3}
+dotsright)
\
&qquadcdot
left(
binom 22
+binom 32 (-iz)
+binom 42(-iz)^2
%+binom 52(-iz)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=
-ileft(
frac 1{1!}binom 22
+frac 1{2!}binom 32 (-i)
+frac 1{3!}binom 42 (-i)^2
%+frac 1{4!}binom 52 (-i)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=dots
end{aligned}
$$
and in the above sum each $frac 1{(n+1)!}binom{n+2}2
=frac 1{(n+1)!}cdotfrac{(n+2)!}{n!2!}=frac{(n+2)}{n!2!}$ has to be explained. We split the nummerator in two parts, one with $n$, one with $2$, and will get some parts of the exponential series in $-i$. One of them needs the aid of the missing $1/0!$, so it is acceptable that we get the killing contribution for the first residue.
add a comment |
OK, i will type an answer, after the comment. The result $0$ is correct. We change variables, $w=1/z$. The contour $C$, circle with radius $5$ goes into the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$. Then we have
$$
begin{aligned}
int_Cfrac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}; dz
&=
int_{C'}frac{e^w}{left(frac 1w-iright)^3}; left(-frac 1{w^2}right);dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {w^3e^w}{w^2(1-iw)^3};dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {we^w}{(1-iw)^3};dw
.
end{aligned}
$$
There is no pole inside $C'$. (The pole $w=-i$ is outside.)
So the integral is zero, Residue Theorem.
Numerically, pari/gp:
? intnum( t=0, 2*Pi,
exp( (cos(t)-I*sin(t))/5 )
/ (5*(cos(t)+I*sin(t)) - I)^3
* 5*(-sin(t)+I*cos(t)) )
%1 = 1.4190890450537301016459116208947201222 E-21
- 1.9571617134379963221261930053722380946 E-21*I
(Manually broken lines to fit in the window.)
This is of course better than computing the two residues of the initial function (in $0$ and in $i$), which are in $i$...
sage: var('z');
sage: f = exp(1/z) / (z-i)^3
sage: f.residue(z==i)
(I + 1/2)*e^(-I)
computed with sage, and in $0$ with the hand
$$
begin{aligned}
&text{Coeff}_{1/z}
frac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}
\
&=
text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot e^{1/z}cdotfrac 1{(1+iz)^3}
\
&=text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot
left(
frac 1{0!}
+frac 1{1!}frac 1z
+frac 1{2!}frac 1{z^2}
+frac 1{3!}frac 1{z^3}
+dotsright)
\
&qquadcdot
left(
binom 22
+binom 32 (-iz)
+binom 42(-iz)^2
%+binom 52(-iz)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=
-ileft(
frac 1{1!}binom 22
+frac 1{2!}binom 32 (-i)
+frac 1{3!}binom 42 (-i)^2
%+frac 1{4!}binom 52 (-i)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=dots
end{aligned}
$$
and in the above sum each $frac 1{(n+1)!}binom{n+2}2
=frac 1{(n+1)!}cdotfrac{(n+2)!}{n!2!}=frac{(n+2)}{n!2!}$ has to be explained. We split the nummerator in two parts, one with $n$, one with $2$, and will get some parts of the exponential series in $-i$. One of them needs the aid of the missing $1/0!$, so it is acceptable that we get the killing contribution for the first residue.
add a comment |
OK, i will type an answer, after the comment. The result $0$ is correct. We change variables, $w=1/z$. The contour $C$, circle with radius $5$ goes into the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$. Then we have
$$
begin{aligned}
int_Cfrac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}; dz
&=
int_{C'}frac{e^w}{left(frac 1w-iright)^3}; left(-frac 1{w^2}right);dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {w^3e^w}{w^2(1-iw)^3};dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {we^w}{(1-iw)^3};dw
.
end{aligned}
$$
There is no pole inside $C'$. (The pole $w=-i$ is outside.)
So the integral is zero, Residue Theorem.
Numerically, pari/gp:
? intnum( t=0, 2*Pi,
exp( (cos(t)-I*sin(t))/5 )
/ (5*(cos(t)+I*sin(t)) - I)^3
* 5*(-sin(t)+I*cos(t)) )
%1 = 1.4190890450537301016459116208947201222 E-21
- 1.9571617134379963221261930053722380946 E-21*I
(Manually broken lines to fit in the window.)
This is of course better than computing the two residues of the initial function (in $0$ and in $i$), which are in $i$...
sage: var('z');
sage: f = exp(1/z) / (z-i)^3
sage: f.residue(z==i)
(I + 1/2)*e^(-I)
computed with sage, and in $0$ with the hand
$$
begin{aligned}
&text{Coeff}_{1/z}
frac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}
\
&=
text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot e^{1/z}cdotfrac 1{(1+iz)^3}
\
&=text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot
left(
frac 1{0!}
+frac 1{1!}frac 1z
+frac 1{2!}frac 1{z^2}
+frac 1{3!}frac 1{z^3}
+dotsright)
\
&qquadcdot
left(
binom 22
+binom 32 (-iz)
+binom 42(-iz)^2
%+binom 52(-iz)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=
-ileft(
frac 1{1!}binom 22
+frac 1{2!}binom 32 (-i)
+frac 1{3!}binom 42 (-i)^2
%+frac 1{4!}binom 52 (-i)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=dots
end{aligned}
$$
and in the above sum each $frac 1{(n+1)!}binom{n+2}2
=frac 1{(n+1)!}cdotfrac{(n+2)!}{n!2!}=frac{(n+2)}{n!2!}$ has to be explained. We split the nummerator in two parts, one with $n$, one with $2$, and will get some parts of the exponential series in $-i$. One of them needs the aid of the missing $1/0!$, so it is acceptable that we get the killing contribution for the first residue.
OK, i will type an answer, after the comment. The result $0$ is correct. We change variables, $w=1/z$. The contour $C$, circle with radius $5$ goes into the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$. Then we have
$$
begin{aligned}
int_Cfrac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}; dz
&=
int_{C'}frac{e^w}{left(frac 1w-iright)^3}; left(-frac 1{w^2}right);dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {w^3e^w}{w^2(1-iw)^3};dw
\
&=
-int_{C'}frac {we^w}{(1-iw)^3};dw
.
end{aligned}
$$
There is no pole inside $C'$. (The pole $w=-i$ is outside.)
So the integral is zero, Residue Theorem.
Numerically, pari/gp:
? intnum( t=0, 2*Pi,
exp( (cos(t)-I*sin(t))/5 )
/ (5*(cos(t)+I*sin(t)) - I)^3
* 5*(-sin(t)+I*cos(t)) )
%1 = 1.4190890450537301016459116208947201222 E-21
- 1.9571617134379963221261930053722380946 E-21*I
(Manually broken lines to fit in the window.)
This is of course better than computing the two residues of the initial function (in $0$ and in $i$), which are in $i$...
sage: var('z');
sage: f = exp(1/z) / (z-i)^3
sage: f.residue(z==i)
(I + 1/2)*e^(-I)
computed with sage, and in $0$ with the hand
$$
begin{aligned}
&text{Coeff}_{1/z}
frac {e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3}
\
&=
text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot e^{1/z}cdotfrac 1{(1+iz)^3}
\
&=text{Coeff}_{1/z}
-icdot
left(
frac 1{0!}
+frac 1{1!}frac 1z
+frac 1{2!}frac 1{z^2}
+frac 1{3!}frac 1{z^3}
+dotsright)
\
&qquadcdot
left(
binom 22
+binom 32 (-iz)
+binom 42(-iz)^2
%+binom 52(-iz)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=
-ileft(
frac 1{1!}binom 22
+frac 1{2!}binom 32 (-i)
+frac 1{3!}binom 42 (-i)^2
%+frac 1{4!}binom 52 (-i)^3
+dots
right)
\
&=dots
end{aligned}
$$
and in the above sum each $frac 1{(n+1)!}binom{n+2}2
=frac 1{(n+1)!}cdotfrac{(n+2)!}{n!2!}=frac{(n+2)}{n!2!}$ has to be explained. We split the nummerator in two parts, one with $n$, one with $2$, and will get some parts of the exponential series in $-i$. One of them needs the aid of the missing $1/0!$, so it is acceptable that we get the killing contribution for the first residue.
answered Nov 29 '18 at 19:23
dan_fulea
6,2151312
6,2151312
add a comment |
add a comment |
I thought it might be instructive to present an approach that is equivalent to using the residue at infinity, but perhaps a bit simpler in this case. To that end we proceed.
Inasmuch as the singularities of the integrand lie inside the unit circle, Cauchy's Integral Theorem guarantees that for $R>5$
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz$$
Now, we have the simple estimate
$$begin{align}
left|oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dzright|&=left|int_0^{2pi} frac{e^{frac1Re^{-iphi}}}{(Re^{iphi}-i)^3},iRe^{iphi},dphiright|\\
&le frac{2pi R^2}{(R-1)^4}
end{align}$$
Finally, letting $Rto infty$, we find
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=0$$
And we are done!
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
add a comment |
I thought it might be instructive to present an approach that is equivalent to using the residue at infinity, but perhaps a bit simpler in this case. To that end we proceed.
Inasmuch as the singularities of the integrand lie inside the unit circle, Cauchy's Integral Theorem guarantees that for $R>5$
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz$$
Now, we have the simple estimate
$$begin{align}
left|oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dzright|&=left|int_0^{2pi} frac{e^{frac1Re^{-iphi}}}{(Re^{iphi}-i)^3},iRe^{iphi},dphiright|\\
&le frac{2pi R^2}{(R-1)^4}
end{align}$$
Finally, letting $Rto infty$, we find
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=0$$
And we are done!
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
add a comment |
I thought it might be instructive to present an approach that is equivalent to using the residue at infinity, but perhaps a bit simpler in this case. To that end we proceed.
Inasmuch as the singularities of the integrand lie inside the unit circle, Cauchy's Integral Theorem guarantees that for $R>5$
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz$$
Now, we have the simple estimate
$$begin{align}
left|oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dzright|&=left|int_0^{2pi} frac{e^{frac1Re^{-iphi}}}{(Re^{iphi}-i)^3},iRe^{iphi},dphiright|\\
&le frac{2pi R^2}{(R-1)^4}
end{align}$$
Finally, letting $Rto infty$, we find
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=0$$
And we are done!
I thought it might be instructive to present an approach that is equivalent to using the residue at infinity, but perhaps a bit simpler in this case. To that end we proceed.
Inasmuch as the singularities of the integrand lie inside the unit circle, Cauchy's Integral Theorem guarantees that for $R>5$
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz$$
Now, we have the simple estimate
$$begin{align}
left|oint_{|z|=R}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dzright|&=left|int_0^{2pi} frac{e^{frac1Re^{-iphi}}}{(Re^{iphi}-i)^3},iRe^{iphi},dphiright|\\
&le frac{2pi R^2}{(R-1)^4}
end{align}$$
Finally, letting $Rto infty$, we find
$$oint_{|z|=5}frac{e^{1/z}}{(z-i)^3},dz=0$$
And we are done!
answered Nov 30 '18 at 17:45
Mark Viola
130k1274170
130k1274170
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
add a comment |
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
Please let me know how I can improve my answer. I really want to give you the best answer I can. And Happy Holidays! ;-)
– Mark Viola
Dec 16 '18 at 18:23
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.
Please pay close attention to the following guidance:
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3018976%2fevaluate-int-c-frace1-zz-i3dz-in-the-circle-z-5%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
1
Yes, this is ok. (Taking the residue at $infty$ is related to the integral on the curve $C$ taken with converse orientation, so as a joke, the result is $-0$.) Alternatively, one can make a change of variables $w=1/z$, this brings the given integral in one over the circle $C'$ with radius $1/5$, with no singularity in $w=0$, and the singularity in $w=-i$ is outside the integral contour $C'$.
– dan_fulea
Nov 29 '18 at 18:39