Another game theory concept. Homeruns are good in baseball, but 2 homeruns/2 games is almost always better...
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I was thinking because the scores in baseball games are relatively low, 2 homeruns over 2 games is almost always more useful than 2 homeruns over 1 game.
So not homeruns are created equal.
I was curious if there was a game theory principle which illustrated this?
statistics
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add a comment |
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I was thinking because the scores in baseball games are relatively low, 2 homeruns over 2 games is almost always more useful than 2 homeruns over 1 game.
So not homeruns are created equal.
I was curious if there was a game theory principle which illustrated this?
statistics
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1
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Basically that is the purpose of assigning payoffs. To quote Moneyball, the goal should be to buy wins. Scoring a run always improves the probability of winning, but not every run adds the same amount of value. When tied in the bottom of the ninth, a homerun secures a win, whereas in a 10–0 game, an additional homerun adds virtually no value. So the former homerun has a higher payoff than the latter.
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– molarmass
Dec 2 '18 at 19:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was thinking because the scores in baseball games are relatively low, 2 homeruns over 2 games is almost always more useful than 2 homeruns over 1 game.
So not homeruns are created equal.
I was curious if there was a game theory principle which illustrated this?
statistics
$endgroup$
I was thinking because the scores in baseball games are relatively low, 2 homeruns over 2 games is almost always more useful than 2 homeruns over 1 game.
So not homeruns are created equal.
I was curious if there was a game theory principle which illustrated this?
statistics
statistics
asked Dec 2 '18 at 17:59
user209627user209627
91
91
1
$begingroup$
Basically that is the purpose of assigning payoffs. To quote Moneyball, the goal should be to buy wins. Scoring a run always improves the probability of winning, but not every run adds the same amount of value. When tied in the bottom of the ninth, a homerun secures a win, whereas in a 10–0 game, an additional homerun adds virtually no value. So the former homerun has a higher payoff than the latter.
$endgroup$
– molarmass
Dec 2 '18 at 19:20
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Basically that is the purpose of assigning payoffs. To quote Moneyball, the goal should be to buy wins. Scoring a run always improves the probability of winning, but not every run adds the same amount of value. When tied in the bottom of the ninth, a homerun secures a win, whereas in a 10–0 game, an additional homerun adds virtually no value. So the former homerun has a higher payoff than the latter.
$endgroup$
– molarmass
Dec 2 '18 at 19:20
1
1
$begingroup$
Basically that is the purpose of assigning payoffs. To quote Moneyball, the goal should be to buy wins. Scoring a run always improves the probability of winning, but not every run adds the same amount of value. When tied in the bottom of the ninth, a homerun secures a win, whereas in a 10–0 game, an additional homerun adds virtually no value. So the former homerun has a higher payoff than the latter.
$endgroup$
– molarmass
Dec 2 '18 at 19:20
$begingroup$
Basically that is the purpose of assigning payoffs. To quote Moneyball, the goal should be to buy wins. Scoring a run always improves the probability of winning, but not every run adds the same amount of value. When tied in the bottom of the ninth, a homerun secures a win, whereas in a 10–0 game, an additional homerun adds virtually no value. So the former homerun has a higher payoff than the latter.
$endgroup$
– molarmass
Dec 2 '18 at 19:20
add a comment |
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Basically that is the purpose of assigning payoffs. To quote Moneyball, the goal should be to buy wins. Scoring a run always improves the probability of winning, but not every run adds the same amount of value. When tied in the bottom of the ninth, a homerun secures a win, whereas in a 10–0 game, an additional homerun adds virtually no value. So the former homerun has a higher payoff than the latter.
$endgroup$
– molarmass
Dec 2 '18 at 19:20