Linear independence and basis within linear transformations












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I am new to linear algebra, and without a teacher. I just want to check my understanding based on the following question:



Let ${v_1,…,v_k}$ be a subset in the linear space V and $T:V to V$ a linear transformation.




  1. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ is independent, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is independent

  2. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ spans V, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is a basis of $V$.


My answer was "yes" to no. 1 (by definition), and "no" to 2. (because we do not know if ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is linearly independent)...



Am I on the right path?



Thank you!










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I am new to linear algebra, and without a teacher. I just want to check my understanding based on the following question:



    Let ${v_1,…,v_k}$ be a subset in the linear space V and $T:V to V$ a linear transformation.




    1. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ is independent, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is independent

    2. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ spans V, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is a basis of $V$.


    My answer was "yes" to no. 1 (by definition), and "no" to 2. (because we do not know if ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is linearly independent)...



    Am I on the right path?



    Thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I am new to linear algebra, and without a teacher. I just want to check my understanding based on the following question:



      Let ${v_1,…,v_k}$ be a subset in the linear space V and $T:V to V$ a linear transformation.




      1. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ is independent, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is independent

      2. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ spans V, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is a basis of $V$.


      My answer was "yes" to no. 1 (by definition), and "no" to 2. (because we do not know if ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is linearly independent)...



      Am I on the right path?



      Thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am new to linear algebra, and without a teacher. I just want to check my understanding based on the following question:



      Let ${v_1,…,v_k}$ be a subset in the linear space V and $T:V to V$ a linear transformation.




      1. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ is independent, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is independent

      2. If ${Tv_1,…,Tv_k}$ spans V, then ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is a basis of $V$.


      My answer was "yes" to no. 1 (by definition), and "no" to 2. (because we do not know if ${v_1,…,v_k}$ is linearly independent)...



      Am I on the right path?



      Thank you!







      linear-algebra linear-transformations






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 1 at 18:38









      Hans Hüttel

      3,3572921




      3,3572921










      asked Jan 1 at 18:32









      daltadalta

      1508




      1508






















          2 Answers
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          1. It is true, but not “by definition”. If $alpha_1,ldots,alpha_k$ are such that $alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k=0$, thenbegin{align}0&=T(0)\&=T(alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k)\&=alpha_1T(v_1)+cdots+alpha_kT(v_k).end{align}Since ${T(v_1),ldots,T(v_k}$ is linearly independent, the $alpha_i$'s are all equal to $0$.

          2. It is false, but you should provide a counterexample.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            2












            $begingroup$

            Your answers are correct but your reasoning is invalid.



            As a rule of thumb, if you want to justify "yes" answers, you (usually) need a conventional proof using theorems, definitions, and so forth. But if you want to justify a "no" answer you (usually) need to exhibit a specific counter-example.



            So, in your case for #2, you need to give a vector space $V$, a set ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ which is not a basis for $V$, and a linear map $T:Vto V$ such that ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$ spans $V$.



            The easiest way to do this is to let $T$ be the identity map on $V$ and let ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ be any overcomplete set.



            For #1, it is true but not by definition. If ${v_1,cdots v_k}$ were not independent we would have a nontrivial linear combination $sum_{i=1}^ka_iv_i=0$ to which we could apply $T$, violating independence of ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              $begingroup$


              1. It is true, but not “by definition”. If $alpha_1,ldots,alpha_k$ are such that $alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k=0$, thenbegin{align}0&=T(0)\&=T(alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k)\&=alpha_1T(v_1)+cdots+alpha_kT(v_k).end{align}Since ${T(v_1),ldots,T(v_k}$ is linearly independent, the $alpha_i$'s are all equal to $0$.

              2. It is false, but you should provide a counterexample.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$


                1. It is true, but not “by definition”. If $alpha_1,ldots,alpha_k$ are such that $alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k=0$, thenbegin{align}0&=T(0)\&=T(alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k)\&=alpha_1T(v_1)+cdots+alpha_kT(v_k).end{align}Since ${T(v_1),ldots,T(v_k}$ is linearly independent, the $alpha_i$'s are all equal to $0$.

                2. It is false, but you should provide a counterexample.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$


                  1. It is true, but not “by definition”. If $alpha_1,ldots,alpha_k$ are such that $alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k=0$, thenbegin{align}0&=T(0)\&=T(alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k)\&=alpha_1T(v_1)+cdots+alpha_kT(v_k).end{align}Since ${T(v_1),ldots,T(v_k}$ is linearly independent, the $alpha_i$'s are all equal to $0$.

                  2. It is false, but you should provide a counterexample.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$




                  1. It is true, but not “by definition”. If $alpha_1,ldots,alpha_k$ are such that $alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k=0$, thenbegin{align}0&=T(0)\&=T(alpha_1v_1+cdots+alpha_kv_k)\&=alpha_1T(v_1)+cdots+alpha_kT(v_k).end{align}Since ${T(v_1),ldots,T(v_k}$ is linearly independent, the $alpha_i$'s are all equal to $0$.

                  2. It is false, but you should provide a counterexample.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 1 at 18:39









                  José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                  171k23132240




                  171k23132240























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      Your answers are correct but your reasoning is invalid.



                      As a rule of thumb, if you want to justify "yes" answers, you (usually) need a conventional proof using theorems, definitions, and so forth. But if you want to justify a "no" answer you (usually) need to exhibit a specific counter-example.



                      So, in your case for #2, you need to give a vector space $V$, a set ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ which is not a basis for $V$, and a linear map $T:Vto V$ such that ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$ spans $V$.



                      The easiest way to do this is to let $T$ be the identity map on $V$ and let ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ be any overcomplete set.



                      For #1, it is true but not by definition. If ${v_1,cdots v_k}$ were not independent we would have a nontrivial linear combination $sum_{i=1}^ka_iv_i=0$ to which we could apply $T$, violating independence of ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        Your answers are correct but your reasoning is invalid.



                        As a rule of thumb, if you want to justify "yes" answers, you (usually) need a conventional proof using theorems, definitions, and so forth. But if you want to justify a "no" answer you (usually) need to exhibit a specific counter-example.



                        So, in your case for #2, you need to give a vector space $V$, a set ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ which is not a basis for $V$, and a linear map $T:Vto V$ such that ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$ spans $V$.



                        The easiest way to do this is to let $T$ be the identity map on $V$ and let ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ be any overcomplete set.



                        For #1, it is true but not by definition. If ${v_1,cdots v_k}$ were not independent we would have a nontrivial linear combination $sum_{i=1}^ka_iv_i=0$ to which we could apply $T$, violating independence of ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          Your answers are correct but your reasoning is invalid.



                          As a rule of thumb, if you want to justify "yes" answers, you (usually) need a conventional proof using theorems, definitions, and so forth. But if you want to justify a "no" answer you (usually) need to exhibit a specific counter-example.



                          So, in your case for #2, you need to give a vector space $V$, a set ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ which is not a basis for $V$, and a linear map $T:Vto V$ such that ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$ spans $V$.



                          The easiest way to do this is to let $T$ be the identity map on $V$ and let ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ be any overcomplete set.



                          For #1, it is true but not by definition. If ${v_1,cdots v_k}$ were not independent we would have a nontrivial linear combination $sum_{i=1}^ka_iv_i=0$ to which we could apply $T$, violating independence of ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          Your answers are correct but your reasoning is invalid.



                          As a rule of thumb, if you want to justify "yes" answers, you (usually) need a conventional proof using theorems, definitions, and so forth. But if you want to justify a "no" answer you (usually) need to exhibit a specific counter-example.



                          So, in your case for #2, you need to give a vector space $V$, a set ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ which is not a basis for $V$, and a linear map $T:Vto V$ such that ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$ spans $V$.



                          The easiest way to do this is to let $T$ be the identity map on $V$ and let ${v_1,cdots,v_k}$ be any overcomplete set.



                          For #1, it is true but not by definition. If ${v_1,cdots v_k}$ were not independent we would have a nontrivial linear combination $sum_{i=1}^ka_iv_i=0$ to which we could apply $T$, violating independence of ${Tv_1,cdots,Tv_k}$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Jan 1 at 18:45

























                          answered Jan 1 at 18:39









                          Ben WBen W

                          2,321615




                          2,321615






























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