How to prove $,x^a-1 mid x^b-1 iff amid b$












3












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How to prove $x^a-1mid x^b-1 iff a mid b$, where $x ge 2$ and $a,b,x in Bbb Z$.



I've tried the following in attempting to solve this:



$$amid b Rightarrow aq=b Rightarrow x^{aq}=x^b Rightarrow x^ax^q=x^b$$



Because $x^q in Bbb Z$, it follows that $x^amid x^b$.



This is as far as I have gotten; any help getting further is appreciated.



Note: It may be that this identity is not true at all?










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  • $begingroup$
    I assume $a,b in mathbb N$, not just $mathbb Z$? Otherwise, in which ring does your divisibility take place?
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Johnson-Freyd
    Dec 17 '13 at 3:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generic : math.stackexchange.com/questions/7473/…
    $endgroup$
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Dec 17 '13 at 5:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related question which implies this result.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Dec 17 '13 at 21:04
















3












$begingroup$


How to prove $x^a-1mid x^b-1 iff a mid b$, where $x ge 2$ and $a,b,x in Bbb Z$.



I've tried the following in attempting to solve this:



$$amid b Rightarrow aq=b Rightarrow x^{aq}=x^b Rightarrow x^ax^q=x^b$$



Because $x^q in Bbb Z$, it follows that $x^amid x^b$.



This is as far as I have gotten; any help getting further is appreciated.



Note: It may be that this identity is not true at all?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I assume $a,b in mathbb N$, not just $mathbb Z$? Otherwise, in which ring does your divisibility take place?
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Johnson-Freyd
    Dec 17 '13 at 3:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generic : math.stackexchange.com/questions/7473/…
    $endgroup$
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Dec 17 '13 at 5:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related question which implies this result.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Dec 17 '13 at 21:04














3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


How to prove $x^a-1mid x^b-1 iff a mid b$, where $x ge 2$ and $a,b,x in Bbb Z$.



I've tried the following in attempting to solve this:



$$amid b Rightarrow aq=b Rightarrow x^{aq}=x^b Rightarrow x^ax^q=x^b$$



Because $x^q in Bbb Z$, it follows that $x^amid x^b$.



This is as far as I have gotten; any help getting further is appreciated.



Note: It may be that this identity is not true at all?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How to prove $x^a-1mid x^b-1 iff a mid b$, where $x ge 2$ and $a,b,x in Bbb Z$.



I've tried the following in attempting to solve this:



$$amid b Rightarrow aq=b Rightarrow x^{aq}=x^b Rightarrow x^ax^q=x^b$$



Because $x^q in Bbb Z$, it follows that $x^amid x^b$.



This is as far as I have gotten; any help getting further is appreciated.



Note: It may be that this identity is not true at all?







elementary-number-theory divisibility






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 1 at 16:52









Bill Dubuque

213k29195654




213k29195654










asked Dec 17 '13 at 2:29









CisplatinCisplatin

1,98752249




1,98752249












  • $begingroup$
    I assume $a,b in mathbb N$, not just $mathbb Z$? Otherwise, in which ring does your divisibility take place?
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Johnson-Freyd
    Dec 17 '13 at 3:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generic : math.stackexchange.com/questions/7473/…
    $endgroup$
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Dec 17 '13 at 5:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related question which implies this result.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Dec 17 '13 at 21:04


















  • $begingroup$
    I assume $a,b in mathbb N$, not just $mathbb Z$? Otherwise, in which ring does your divisibility take place?
    $endgroup$
    – Theo Johnson-Freyd
    Dec 17 '13 at 3:59










  • $begingroup$
    More generic : math.stackexchange.com/questions/7473/…
    $endgroup$
    – lab bhattacharjee
    Dec 17 '13 at 5:36










  • $begingroup$
    Related question which implies this result.
    $endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Dec 17 '13 at 21:04
















$begingroup$
I assume $a,b in mathbb N$, not just $mathbb Z$? Otherwise, in which ring does your divisibility take place?
$endgroup$
– Theo Johnson-Freyd
Dec 17 '13 at 3:59




$begingroup$
I assume $a,b in mathbb N$, not just $mathbb Z$? Otherwise, in which ring does your divisibility take place?
$endgroup$
– Theo Johnson-Freyd
Dec 17 '13 at 3:59












$begingroup$
More generic : math.stackexchange.com/questions/7473/…
$endgroup$
– lab bhattacharjee
Dec 17 '13 at 5:36




$begingroup$
More generic : math.stackexchange.com/questions/7473/…
$endgroup$
– lab bhattacharjee
Dec 17 '13 at 5:36












$begingroup$
Related question which implies this result.
$endgroup$
– robjohn
Dec 17 '13 at 21:04




$begingroup$
Related question which implies this result.
$endgroup$
– robjohn
Dec 17 '13 at 21:04










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

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10












$begingroup$

Hint $rm, mod x^{large A}!-1!:, color{#c00}{x^{large A}equiv 1}, so smash[b]{underbrace{x^{large B}equiv x^{large B mod A}}} equiv 1 !iff! B mod A = 0 !iff! Amid B$



since we have $ rm B = AQ+R,Rightarrow, x^{large B}equiv (color{#c00}{x^{large A }})^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv {color{#c00}1}^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv x^{large R}, $ for $rm, R = Bbmod A$



Remark $ $ One can show much more. The polynomial sequence $rm f_n = (x^n-1)/(x-1),, $ like the Fibonacci sequence, is a strong divisibility sequence, i.e. $rm: (f_m,f_n): =: f_{:(m,n)}.,$ The proof is simple - essentially the same as the proof of the Bezout identity for integers - see my post here. Thus we can view the polynomial Bezout identity as a q-analog of the integer Bezout identity, e.g. compare the Bezout identity for the gcd $rm color{#90f}3, =, (color{#0a0}{15},,color{#c00}{21}) $ in polynomial and integer form:



$$rm color{#90f}{frac{x^3-1}{x-1}} = (x^{15} + x^9 + 1) color{#0a0}{frac{x^{15}-1}{x-1}} - (x^9+x^3) color{#c00}{frac{x^{21}-1}{x-1}}$$



for $rm x = 1 $ this specializes to $ color{#90f}3 = (3) color{#0a0}{15} - (2) color{#c00}{21}., $ It is well-worth mastering these binomial divisibility properties since they occur quite frequently in number theoretical applications and, moreover, they provide excellent motivation for the more general study of divisibility theory, $ $ esp. in divisor theory form. For an introduction see Borovich and Shafarevich: Number Theory.






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    1












    $begingroup$

    It is true because $x-1$ divides $x^q - 1$ (so substitute $y=x^a$ in your calculation) in one direction. In the other direction, divide the two polynomials by long division.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      Hint. Prove that if $0<r<a$, then $x^a-1$ does not divide $x^r-1.$ After that, make an euclidean division to get $x^{b}-1=x^{qa+r}-1$, with $0leqslant r<a$. Now, you know that $x^b-1equiv x^r-1pmod{x^a-1}$. Now, prove $r=0$ and you are done.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        1












        $begingroup$

        Here's a naughty proof of the "only if" direction (Igor Rivin's proof is optimal for the other one): if $x^a - 1 mid x^b - 1$ (where $a, b > 0$), then there is a polynomial $p(x)$ such that
        $$x^b - 1 = (x^a - 1)p(x).$$
        Now, $p(x)$ has a priori rational coefficients but since $x^a - 1$ is monic, by the division algorithm it in fact has integral coefficients. Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$, using the product rule:
        $$b x^{b - 1} = a x^{a - 1} p(x) + (x^a - 1) p'(x).$$
        Now take $x = 1$ and conclude
        $$b = a ,p(1).$$
        Since $p$ has integral coefficients, $p(1) in mathbb{Z}$ and we conclude $a mid b$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$





















          1












          $begingroup$

          This is adapted from this answer.



          Since
          $$
          frac{a^k-1}{a-1}=sum_{j=0}^{k-1}a^jtag{1}
          $$
          we immediately get that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ when $mmid n$.



          Now, suppose that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ and that $n=km+r$ where $0le r< m$. Then
          $$
          begin{align}
          frac{x^n-1}{x^m-1}
          &=frac{x^{km+r}-x^{km}}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
          &=x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
          &inmathbb{Z}tag{2}
          end{align}
          $$
          It immediately follows from $(1)$ that $frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$. Therefore, we must also have $x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$:
          $$
          x^m-1mid x^{km}(x^r-1)tag{3}
          $$



          Since $left(x^{km},x^m-1right)=1$, $(3)$ implies that $x^m-1mid x^r-1$. However, since $0le r< m$, we have that $0le x^r-1< x^m-1$. Therefore, $x^r-1=0$; that is, $r=0$ and $n=km$; hence, $mmid n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            would the downvoter care to comment?
            $endgroup$
            – robjohn
            Dec 18 '13 at 0:49












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          5 Answers
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          active

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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

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          10












          $begingroup$

          Hint $rm, mod x^{large A}!-1!:, color{#c00}{x^{large A}equiv 1}, so smash[b]{underbrace{x^{large B}equiv x^{large B mod A}}} equiv 1 !iff! B mod A = 0 !iff! Amid B$



          since we have $ rm B = AQ+R,Rightarrow, x^{large B}equiv (color{#c00}{x^{large A }})^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv {color{#c00}1}^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv x^{large R}, $ for $rm, R = Bbmod A$



          Remark $ $ One can show much more. The polynomial sequence $rm f_n = (x^n-1)/(x-1),, $ like the Fibonacci sequence, is a strong divisibility sequence, i.e. $rm: (f_m,f_n): =: f_{:(m,n)}.,$ The proof is simple - essentially the same as the proof of the Bezout identity for integers - see my post here. Thus we can view the polynomial Bezout identity as a q-analog of the integer Bezout identity, e.g. compare the Bezout identity for the gcd $rm color{#90f}3, =, (color{#0a0}{15},,color{#c00}{21}) $ in polynomial and integer form:



          $$rm color{#90f}{frac{x^3-1}{x-1}} = (x^{15} + x^9 + 1) color{#0a0}{frac{x^{15}-1}{x-1}} - (x^9+x^3) color{#c00}{frac{x^{21}-1}{x-1}}$$



          for $rm x = 1 $ this specializes to $ color{#90f}3 = (3) color{#0a0}{15} - (2) color{#c00}{21}., $ It is well-worth mastering these binomial divisibility properties since they occur quite frequently in number theoretical applications and, moreover, they provide excellent motivation for the more general study of divisibility theory, $ $ esp. in divisor theory form. For an introduction see Borovich and Shafarevich: Number Theory.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$


















            10












            $begingroup$

            Hint $rm, mod x^{large A}!-1!:, color{#c00}{x^{large A}equiv 1}, so smash[b]{underbrace{x^{large B}equiv x^{large B mod A}}} equiv 1 !iff! B mod A = 0 !iff! Amid B$



            since we have $ rm B = AQ+R,Rightarrow, x^{large B}equiv (color{#c00}{x^{large A }})^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv {color{#c00}1}^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv x^{large R}, $ for $rm, R = Bbmod A$



            Remark $ $ One can show much more. The polynomial sequence $rm f_n = (x^n-1)/(x-1),, $ like the Fibonacci sequence, is a strong divisibility sequence, i.e. $rm: (f_m,f_n): =: f_{:(m,n)}.,$ The proof is simple - essentially the same as the proof of the Bezout identity for integers - see my post here. Thus we can view the polynomial Bezout identity as a q-analog of the integer Bezout identity, e.g. compare the Bezout identity for the gcd $rm color{#90f}3, =, (color{#0a0}{15},,color{#c00}{21}) $ in polynomial and integer form:



            $$rm color{#90f}{frac{x^3-1}{x-1}} = (x^{15} + x^9 + 1) color{#0a0}{frac{x^{15}-1}{x-1}} - (x^9+x^3) color{#c00}{frac{x^{21}-1}{x-1}}$$



            for $rm x = 1 $ this specializes to $ color{#90f}3 = (3) color{#0a0}{15} - (2) color{#c00}{21}., $ It is well-worth mastering these binomial divisibility properties since they occur quite frequently in number theoretical applications and, moreover, they provide excellent motivation for the more general study of divisibility theory, $ $ esp. in divisor theory form. For an introduction see Borovich and Shafarevich: Number Theory.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$
















              10












              10








              10





              $begingroup$

              Hint $rm, mod x^{large A}!-1!:, color{#c00}{x^{large A}equiv 1}, so smash[b]{underbrace{x^{large B}equiv x^{large B mod A}}} equiv 1 !iff! B mod A = 0 !iff! Amid B$



              since we have $ rm B = AQ+R,Rightarrow, x^{large B}equiv (color{#c00}{x^{large A }})^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv {color{#c00}1}^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv x^{large R}, $ for $rm, R = Bbmod A$



              Remark $ $ One can show much more. The polynomial sequence $rm f_n = (x^n-1)/(x-1),, $ like the Fibonacci sequence, is a strong divisibility sequence, i.e. $rm: (f_m,f_n): =: f_{:(m,n)}.,$ The proof is simple - essentially the same as the proof of the Bezout identity for integers - see my post here. Thus we can view the polynomial Bezout identity as a q-analog of the integer Bezout identity, e.g. compare the Bezout identity for the gcd $rm color{#90f}3, =, (color{#0a0}{15},,color{#c00}{21}) $ in polynomial and integer form:



              $$rm color{#90f}{frac{x^3-1}{x-1}} = (x^{15} + x^9 + 1) color{#0a0}{frac{x^{15}-1}{x-1}} - (x^9+x^3) color{#c00}{frac{x^{21}-1}{x-1}}$$



              for $rm x = 1 $ this specializes to $ color{#90f}3 = (3) color{#0a0}{15} - (2) color{#c00}{21}., $ It is well-worth mastering these binomial divisibility properties since they occur quite frequently in number theoretical applications and, moreover, they provide excellent motivation for the more general study of divisibility theory, $ $ esp. in divisor theory form. For an introduction see Borovich and Shafarevich: Number Theory.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Hint $rm, mod x^{large A}!-1!:, color{#c00}{x^{large A}equiv 1}, so smash[b]{underbrace{x^{large B}equiv x^{large B mod A}}} equiv 1 !iff! B mod A = 0 !iff! Amid B$



              since we have $ rm B = AQ+R,Rightarrow, x^{large B}equiv (color{#c00}{x^{large A }})^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv {color{#c00}1}^{large Q} x^{large R}equiv x^{large R}, $ for $rm, R = Bbmod A$



              Remark $ $ One can show much more. The polynomial sequence $rm f_n = (x^n-1)/(x-1),, $ like the Fibonacci sequence, is a strong divisibility sequence, i.e. $rm: (f_m,f_n): =: f_{:(m,n)}.,$ The proof is simple - essentially the same as the proof of the Bezout identity for integers - see my post here. Thus we can view the polynomial Bezout identity as a q-analog of the integer Bezout identity, e.g. compare the Bezout identity for the gcd $rm color{#90f}3, =, (color{#0a0}{15},,color{#c00}{21}) $ in polynomial and integer form:



              $$rm color{#90f}{frac{x^3-1}{x-1}} = (x^{15} + x^9 + 1) color{#0a0}{frac{x^{15}-1}{x-1}} - (x^9+x^3) color{#c00}{frac{x^{21}-1}{x-1}}$$



              for $rm x = 1 $ this specializes to $ color{#90f}3 = (3) color{#0a0}{15} - (2) color{#c00}{21}., $ It is well-worth mastering these binomial divisibility properties since they occur quite frequently in number theoretical applications and, moreover, they provide excellent motivation for the more general study of divisibility theory, $ $ esp. in divisor theory form. For an introduction see Borovich and Shafarevich: Number Theory.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Oct 8 '18 at 18:55

























              answered Dec 17 '13 at 2:36









              Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

              213k29195654




              213k29195654























                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  It is true because $x-1$ divides $x^q - 1$ (so substitute $y=x^a$ in your calculation) in one direction. In the other direction, divide the two polynomials by long division.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    It is true because $x-1$ divides $x^q - 1$ (so substitute $y=x^a$ in your calculation) in one direction. In the other direction, divide the two polynomials by long division.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      1












                      1








                      1





                      $begingroup$

                      It is true because $x-1$ divides $x^q - 1$ (so substitute $y=x^a$ in your calculation) in one direction. In the other direction, divide the two polynomials by long division.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      It is true because $x-1$ divides $x^q - 1$ (so substitute $y=x^a$ in your calculation) in one direction. In the other direction, divide the two polynomials by long division.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 17 '13 at 2:33









                      Igor RivinIgor Rivin

                      16k11234




                      16k11234























                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          Hint. Prove that if $0<r<a$, then $x^a-1$ does not divide $x^r-1.$ After that, make an euclidean division to get $x^{b}-1=x^{qa+r}-1$, with $0leqslant r<a$. Now, you know that $x^b-1equiv x^r-1pmod{x^a-1}$. Now, prove $r=0$ and you are done.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            1












                            $begingroup$

                            Hint. Prove that if $0<r<a$, then $x^a-1$ does not divide $x^r-1.$ After that, make an euclidean division to get $x^{b}-1=x^{qa+r}-1$, with $0leqslant r<a$. Now, you know that $x^b-1equiv x^r-1pmod{x^a-1}$. Now, prove $r=0$ and you are done.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              Hint. Prove that if $0<r<a$, then $x^a-1$ does not divide $x^r-1.$ After that, make an euclidean division to get $x^{b}-1=x^{qa+r}-1$, with $0leqslant r<a$. Now, you know that $x^b-1equiv x^r-1pmod{x^a-1}$. Now, prove $r=0$ and you are done.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              Hint. Prove that if $0<r<a$, then $x^a-1$ does not divide $x^r-1.$ After that, make an euclidean division to get $x^{b}-1=x^{qa+r}-1$, with $0leqslant r<a$. Now, you know that $x^b-1equiv x^r-1pmod{x^a-1}$. Now, prove $r=0$ and you are done.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Dec 17 '13 at 2:36









                              Ian MateusIan Mateus

                              4,69532552




                              4,69532552























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Here's a naughty proof of the "only if" direction (Igor Rivin's proof is optimal for the other one): if $x^a - 1 mid x^b - 1$ (where $a, b > 0$), then there is a polynomial $p(x)$ such that
                                  $$x^b - 1 = (x^a - 1)p(x).$$
                                  Now, $p(x)$ has a priori rational coefficients but since $x^a - 1$ is monic, by the division algorithm it in fact has integral coefficients. Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$, using the product rule:
                                  $$b x^{b - 1} = a x^{a - 1} p(x) + (x^a - 1) p'(x).$$
                                  Now take $x = 1$ and conclude
                                  $$b = a ,p(1).$$
                                  Since $p$ has integral coefficients, $p(1) in mathbb{Z}$ and we conclude $a mid b$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$


















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Here's a naughty proof of the "only if" direction (Igor Rivin's proof is optimal for the other one): if $x^a - 1 mid x^b - 1$ (where $a, b > 0$), then there is a polynomial $p(x)$ such that
                                    $$x^b - 1 = (x^a - 1)p(x).$$
                                    Now, $p(x)$ has a priori rational coefficients but since $x^a - 1$ is monic, by the division algorithm it in fact has integral coefficients. Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$, using the product rule:
                                    $$b x^{b - 1} = a x^{a - 1} p(x) + (x^a - 1) p'(x).$$
                                    Now take $x = 1$ and conclude
                                    $$b = a ,p(1).$$
                                    Since $p$ has integral coefficients, $p(1) in mathbb{Z}$ and we conclude $a mid b$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$
















                                      1












                                      1








                                      1





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Here's a naughty proof of the "only if" direction (Igor Rivin's proof is optimal for the other one): if $x^a - 1 mid x^b - 1$ (where $a, b > 0$), then there is a polynomial $p(x)$ such that
                                      $$x^b - 1 = (x^a - 1)p(x).$$
                                      Now, $p(x)$ has a priori rational coefficients but since $x^a - 1$ is monic, by the division algorithm it in fact has integral coefficients. Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$, using the product rule:
                                      $$b x^{b - 1} = a x^{a - 1} p(x) + (x^a - 1) p'(x).$$
                                      Now take $x = 1$ and conclude
                                      $$b = a ,p(1).$$
                                      Since $p$ has integral coefficients, $p(1) in mathbb{Z}$ and we conclude $a mid b$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer











                                      $endgroup$



                                      Here's a naughty proof of the "only if" direction (Igor Rivin's proof is optimal for the other one): if $x^a - 1 mid x^b - 1$ (where $a, b > 0$), then there is a polynomial $p(x)$ such that
                                      $$x^b - 1 = (x^a - 1)p(x).$$
                                      Now, $p(x)$ has a priori rational coefficients but since $x^a - 1$ is monic, by the division algorithm it in fact has integral coefficients. Differentiate both sides with respect to $x$, using the product rule:
                                      $$b x^{b - 1} = a x^{a - 1} p(x) + (x^a - 1) p'(x).$$
                                      Now take $x = 1$ and conclude
                                      $$b = a ,p(1).$$
                                      Since $p$ has integral coefficients, $p(1) in mathbb{Z}$ and we conclude $a mid b$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited Dec 17 '13 at 4:12

























                                      answered Dec 17 '13 at 4:03









                                      Ryan ReichRyan Reich

                                      5,4211627




                                      5,4211627























                                          1












                                          $begingroup$

                                          This is adapted from this answer.



                                          Since
                                          $$
                                          frac{a^k-1}{a-1}=sum_{j=0}^{k-1}a^jtag{1}
                                          $$
                                          we immediately get that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ when $mmid n$.



                                          Now, suppose that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ and that $n=km+r$ where $0le r< m$. Then
                                          $$
                                          begin{align}
                                          frac{x^n-1}{x^m-1}
                                          &=frac{x^{km+r}-x^{km}}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &=x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &inmathbb{Z}tag{2}
                                          end{align}
                                          $$
                                          It immediately follows from $(1)$ that $frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$. Therefore, we must also have $x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$:
                                          $$
                                          x^m-1mid x^{km}(x^r-1)tag{3}
                                          $$



                                          Since $left(x^{km},x^m-1right)=1$, $(3)$ implies that $x^m-1mid x^r-1$. However, since $0le r< m$, we have that $0le x^r-1< x^m-1$. Therefore, $x^r-1=0$; that is, $r=0$ and $n=km$; hence, $mmid n$.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer











                                          $endgroup$













                                          • $begingroup$
                                            would the downvoter care to comment?
                                            $endgroup$
                                            – robjohn
                                            Dec 18 '13 at 0:49
















                                          1












                                          $begingroup$

                                          This is adapted from this answer.



                                          Since
                                          $$
                                          frac{a^k-1}{a-1}=sum_{j=0}^{k-1}a^jtag{1}
                                          $$
                                          we immediately get that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ when $mmid n$.



                                          Now, suppose that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ and that $n=km+r$ where $0le r< m$. Then
                                          $$
                                          begin{align}
                                          frac{x^n-1}{x^m-1}
                                          &=frac{x^{km+r}-x^{km}}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &=x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &inmathbb{Z}tag{2}
                                          end{align}
                                          $$
                                          It immediately follows from $(1)$ that $frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$. Therefore, we must also have $x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$:
                                          $$
                                          x^m-1mid x^{km}(x^r-1)tag{3}
                                          $$



                                          Since $left(x^{km},x^m-1right)=1$, $(3)$ implies that $x^m-1mid x^r-1$. However, since $0le r< m$, we have that $0le x^r-1< x^m-1$. Therefore, $x^r-1=0$; that is, $r=0$ and $n=km$; hence, $mmid n$.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer











                                          $endgroup$













                                          • $begingroup$
                                            would the downvoter care to comment?
                                            $endgroup$
                                            – robjohn
                                            Dec 18 '13 at 0:49














                                          1












                                          1








                                          1





                                          $begingroup$

                                          This is adapted from this answer.



                                          Since
                                          $$
                                          frac{a^k-1}{a-1}=sum_{j=0}^{k-1}a^jtag{1}
                                          $$
                                          we immediately get that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ when $mmid n$.



                                          Now, suppose that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ and that $n=km+r$ where $0le r< m$. Then
                                          $$
                                          begin{align}
                                          frac{x^n-1}{x^m-1}
                                          &=frac{x^{km+r}-x^{km}}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &=x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &inmathbb{Z}tag{2}
                                          end{align}
                                          $$
                                          It immediately follows from $(1)$ that $frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$. Therefore, we must also have $x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$:
                                          $$
                                          x^m-1mid x^{km}(x^r-1)tag{3}
                                          $$



                                          Since $left(x^{km},x^m-1right)=1$, $(3)$ implies that $x^m-1mid x^r-1$. However, since $0le r< m$, we have that $0le x^r-1< x^m-1$. Therefore, $x^r-1=0$; that is, $r=0$ and $n=km$; hence, $mmid n$.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer











                                          $endgroup$



                                          This is adapted from this answer.



                                          Since
                                          $$
                                          frac{a^k-1}{a-1}=sum_{j=0}^{k-1}a^jtag{1}
                                          $$
                                          we immediately get that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ when $mmid n$.



                                          Now, suppose that $x^m-1mid x^n-1$ and that $n=km+r$ where $0le r< m$. Then
                                          $$
                                          begin{align}
                                          frac{x^n-1}{x^m-1}
                                          &=frac{x^{km+r}-x^{km}}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &=x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}+frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}\
                                          &inmathbb{Z}tag{2}
                                          end{align}
                                          $$
                                          It immediately follows from $(1)$ that $frac{x^{km}-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$. Therefore, we must also have $x^{km}frac{x^r-1}{x^m-1}inmathbb{Z}$:
                                          $$
                                          x^m-1mid x^{km}(x^r-1)tag{3}
                                          $$



                                          Since $left(x^{km},x^m-1right)=1$, $(3)$ implies that $x^m-1mid x^r-1$. However, since $0le r< m$, we have that $0le x^r-1< x^m-1$. Therefore, $x^r-1=0$; that is, $r=0$ and $n=km$; hence, $mmid n$.







                                          share|cite|improve this answer














                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer








                                          edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19









                                          Community

                                          1




                                          1










                                          answered Dec 17 '13 at 21:11









                                          robjohnrobjohn

                                          270k27312639




                                          270k27312639












                                          • $begingroup$
                                            would the downvoter care to comment?
                                            $endgroup$
                                            – robjohn
                                            Dec 18 '13 at 0:49


















                                          • $begingroup$
                                            would the downvoter care to comment?
                                            $endgroup$
                                            – robjohn
                                            Dec 18 '13 at 0:49
















                                          $begingroup$
                                          would the downvoter care to comment?
                                          $endgroup$
                                          – robjohn
                                          Dec 18 '13 at 0:49




                                          $begingroup$
                                          would the downvoter care to comment?
                                          $endgroup$
                                          – robjohn
                                          Dec 18 '13 at 0:49


















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