Help in proving this statement (Analysis 2)












0












$begingroup$


Let $Omega$ be a limited domain of $mathbb{R}^n$.
Suppose $u$ to be measurable over $Omega$, and suppose that for every $p geq 1$



$$|u|^p in L^1(Omega)$$



Now, defined



$$phi_p(u) = left(frac{1}{text{measure}(Omega)}int_{Omega}|u|^p text{d}xright)^{1/p}$$



prove that for every $(p, q) geq 1$ with $p leq q$ we have



$$Phi_p(u) leq Phi_q(u)$$



Any hint? Thank you so much!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $Omega$ be a limited domain of $mathbb{R}^n$.
    Suppose $u$ to be measurable over $Omega$, and suppose that for every $p geq 1$



    $$|u|^p in L^1(Omega)$$



    Now, defined



    $$phi_p(u) = left(frac{1}{text{measure}(Omega)}int_{Omega}|u|^p text{d}xright)^{1/p}$$



    prove that for every $(p, q) geq 1$ with $p leq q$ we have



    $$Phi_p(u) leq Phi_q(u)$$



    Any hint? Thank you so much!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $Omega$ be a limited domain of $mathbb{R}^n$.
      Suppose $u$ to be measurable over $Omega$, and suppose that for every $p geq 1$



      $$|u|^p in L^1(Omega)$$



      Now, defined



      $$phi_p(u) = left(frac{1}{text{measure}(Omega)}int_{Omega}|u|^p text{d}xright)^{1/p}$$



      prove that for every $(p, q) geq 1$ with $p leq q$ we have



      $$Phi_p(u) leq Phi_q(u)$$



      Any hint? Thank you so much!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $Omega$ be a limited domain of $mathbb{R}^n$.
      Suppose $u$ to be measurable over $Omega$, and suppose that for every $p geq 1$



      $$|u|^p in L^1(Omega)$$



      Now, defined



      $$phi_p(u) = left(frac{1}{text{measure}(Omega)}int_{Omega}|u|^p text{d}xright)^{1/p}$$



      prove that for every $(p, q) geq 1$ with $p leq q$ we have



      $$Phi_p(u) leq Phi_q(u)$$



      Any hint? Thank you so much!







      real-analysis calculus functional-analysis multivariable-calculus






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 26 '18 at 19:59









      Von NeumannVon Neumann

      16.5k72545




      16.5k72545






















          1 Answer
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          2












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          If $p = q$, there is nothing to prove, so suppose $p < q$. Apply Hölder's inequality with conjugate exponents $q/p$ and $q/(q-p)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            If $p = q$, there is nothing to prove, so suppose $p < q$. Apply Hölder's inequality with conjugate exponents $q/p$ and $q/(q-p)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              Hint:



              If $p = q$, there is nothing to prove, so suppose $p < q$. Apply Hölder's inequality with conjugate exponents $q/p$ and $q/(q-p)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                Hint:



                If $p = q$, there is nothing to prove, so suppose $p < q$. Apply Hölder's inequality with conjugate exponents $q/p$ and $q/(q-p)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                Hint:



                If $p = q$, there is nothing to prove, so suppose $p < q$. Apply Hölder's inequality with conjugate exponents $q/p$ and $q/(q-p)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Feb 8 at 10:24









                Von Neumann

                16.5k72545




                16.5k72545










                answered Dec 26 '18 at 20:10









                kobekobe

                35k22248




                35k22248






























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