ideal sheaf modulo square of ideal sheaf equals restriction?












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Assume we have schemes $Yhookrightarrow X$. Then we can define the ideal sheaf of $Y$ in $X$, denoted $I=I_{Y/X}$. I read at several stages that $I/I^2=Imid_Y$. There never is given any kind of reference so it is probably a very stupid question... Anyway, I just don't see why this holds at the moment. Please help!










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    1












    $begingroup$


    Assume we have schemes $Yhookrightarrow X$. Then we can define the ideal sheaf of $Y$ in $X$, denoted $I=I_{Y/X}$. I read at several stages that $I/I^2=Imid_Y$. There never is given any kind of reference so it is probably a very stupid question... Anyway, I just don't see why this holds at the moment. Please help!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Assume we have schemes $Yhookrightarrow X$. Then we can define the ideal sheaf of $Y$ in $X$, denoted $I=I_{Y/X}$. I read at several stages that $I/I^2=Imid_Y$. There never is given any kind of reference so it is probably a very stupid question... Anyway, I just don't see why this holds at the moment. Please help!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Assume we have schemes $Yhookrightarrow X$. Then we can define the ideal sheaf of $Y$ in $X$, denoted $I=I_{Y/X}$. I read at several stages that $I/I^2=Imid_Y$. There never is given any kind of reference so it is probably a very stupid question... Anyway, I just don't see why this holds at the moment. Please help!







      abstract-algebra algebraic-geometry






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      asked Dec 3 '18 at 9:40







      user620217





























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          $begingroup$

          If you tensor the standard exact sequence
          $$
          0 to I to O_X to O_Y to 0
          $$

          with $I$, you get
          $$
          I otimes I to I to I otimes O_Y to 0.
          $$

          Note that the first map takes $f otimes g$ to $fg$, hence its image is $I^2$. This proves that
          $$
          I/I^2 cong I otimes O_Y cong Ivert_Y.
          $$






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            1 Answer
            1






            active

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            1 Answer
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            active

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            $begingroup$

            If you tensor the standard exact sequence
            $$
            0 to I to O_X to O_Y to 0
            $$

            with $I$, you get
            $$
            I otimes I to I to I otimes O_Y to 0.
            $$

            Note that the first map takes $f otimes g$ to $fg$, hence its image is $I^2$. This proves that
            $$
            I/I^2 cong I otimes O_Y cong Ivert_Y.
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              If you tensor the standard exact sequence
              $$
              0 to I to O_X to O_Y to 0
              $$

              with $I$, you get
              $$
              I otimes I to I to I otimes O_Y to 0.
              $$

              Note that the first map takes $f otimes g$ to $fg$, hence its image is $I^2$. This proves that
              $$
              I/I^2 cong I otimes O_Y cong Ivert_Y.
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                If you tensor the standard exact sequence
                $$
                0 to I to O_X to O_Y to 0
                $$

                with $I$, you get
                $$
                I otimes I to I to I otimes O_Y to 0.
                $$

                Note that the first map takes $f otimes g$ to $fg$, hence its image is $I^2$. This proves that
                $$
                I/I^2 cong I otimes O_Y cong Ivert_Y.
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                If you tensor the standard exact sequence
                $$
                0 to I to O_X to O_Y to 0
                $$

                with $I$, you get
                $$
                I otimes I to I to I otimes O_Y to 0.
                $$

                Note that the first map takes $f otimes g$ to $fg$, hence its image is $I^2$. This proves that
                $$
                I/I^2 cong I otimes O_Y cong Ivert_Y.
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 3 '18 at 11:45









                SashaSasha

                4,518139




                4,518139






























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