An integral inequality with cosine












0














I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44


















0














I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44
















0












0








0







I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!










share|cite|improve this question















I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!







inequality integral-inequality






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 28 '18 at 2:40

























asked Nov 28 '18 at 2:03









Sachpazis Stelios

765315




765315












  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44




















  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44


















I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:09




I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:09












@user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:11




@user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:11












What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:34






What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:34














@user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:39




@user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:39












The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:44






The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:44












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1














We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39
















1














We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39














1












1








1






We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer












We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 28 '18 at 5:11









Fabian

19.4k3674




19.4k3674












  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39


















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39
















Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:32




Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:32












Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:39




Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:39


















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