Does there exist a real number a given distance from each rational number?












6












$begingroup$



Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?




This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.




Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$

whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.




Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.










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  • $begingroup$
    You may need to clarify your first line. Are you asking whether there is ever such an $x$ or whether there is always such an $x$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 17 at 0:17
















6












$begingroup$



Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?




This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.




Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$

whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.




Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You may need to clarify your first line. Are you asking whether there is ever such an $x$ or whether there is always such an $x$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 17 at 0:17














6












6








6





$begingroup$



Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?




This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.




Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$

whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.




Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Let $r_n$ be an enumeration of the rational numbers and let $a_n$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that converges to zero. Does there exist $xin mathbb{R}$ such that $|x-r_n|>a_n$ for all $n$?




This problem was inspired by an easier version of the problem where we assume the stronger condition that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty a_n$ converges. I have a simple solution in this particular case but I will spoiler it in case anyone would like to try this too.




Let $Omega$ denote the set of $xin mathbb{R}$ that do not satisfy the given property; we claim that $Omega neq mathbb{R}$ and so an $xin mathbb{R}$ with given property exists. Indeed, $Omega={xinmathbb{R} | exists nin mathbb{N} mathrm{such that} |x-r_n| leq a_n}=displaystylebigcup_{n=1}^infty [r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n]$

whose Lebesgue measure $lambda(Omega)leq displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty lambda([r_n-a_n,r_n+a_n])=displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty 2a_n < infty$, so $Omega neq mathbb{R}$.




Unfortunately it is very specific to this particular case so I doubt it helps with the general case, which I have no idea how to solve. I assume that, unless I'm missing something obvious, it uses some deeper theory (irrationality measure?) that I have not learned. Ideas for the general case or alternative (more elementary) solutions to the easier case would be appreciated.







real-analysis sequences-and-series alternative-proof






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asked Jan 16 at 17:20









AlephNullAlephNull

2799




2799












  • $begingroup$
    You may need to clarify your first line. Are you asking whether there is ever such an $x$ or whether there is always such an $x$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 17 at 0:17


















  • $begingroup$
    You may need to clarify your first line. Are you asking whether there is ever such an $x$ or whether there is always such an $x$?
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 17 at 0:17
















$begingroup$
You may need to clarify your first line. Are you asking whether there is ever such an $x$ or whether there is always such an $x$?
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 17 at 0:17




$begingroup$
You may need to clarify your first line. Are you asking whether there is ever such an $x$ or whether there is always such an $x$?
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 17 at 0:17










2 Answers
2






active

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$begingroup$

No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).



(At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)



For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).





The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.



Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:




  • $n_i<n_{i+1}$, and


  • $r_{n_i}in B_i$.



Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.



Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.






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    3












    $begingroup$

    The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:



    $$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
    where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
    is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.



    Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.



    Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
    $$r_{n} in U_n$$
    holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.



    Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
      $endgroup$
      – Noah Schweber
      Jan 16 at 17:38











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    2 Answers
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    $begingroup$

    No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).



    (At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)



    For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).





    The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.



    Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:




    • $n_i<n_{i+1}$, and


    • $r_{n_i}in B_i$.



    Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.



    Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      4












      $begingroup$

      No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).



      (At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)



      For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).





      The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.



      Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:




      • $n_i<n_{i+1}$, and


      • $r_{n_i}in B_i$.



      Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.



      Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).



        (At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)



        For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).





        The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.



        Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:




        • $n_i<n_{i+1}$, and


        • $r_{n_i}in B_i$.



        Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.



        Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        No, this is not the case, and in fact is never the case: any enumeration of rationals whatsoever has an "unsatisfiable sequence" (that is, a sequence of reals tending to zero - indeed, strictly decreasing! - such that no real satisfies the corresponding requirement on distances from rationals).



        (At the same time, given a sequence $(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ it's easy to construct an enumeration of the rationals with respect to which that sequence is satisfiable - just play "keep away from $pi$," and make sure every rational gets tossed in eventually - so this is the strongest negative result we can hope for.)



        For simplicity, let's look at $[0,infty)$ rather than $mathbb{R}$ (this doesn't make a substantive difference).





        The key point is the following picture: we chop $[0,infty)$ into blocks $B_i$ such that the size of block $B_i$ goes to zero as $i$ goes to $infty$. One way to do this is to define the $B_i$s inductively by $B_0=[0,1)$ and $B_{i+1}=[sum_{0<jle i}{1over j}, (sum_{0<jle i}{1over j})+{1over i+1})$. Note that each $B_k$ has "diameter" ${1over k+1}$, and hence if $qin B_k$ then the ball around $q$ with radius ${2over k+1}$ covers $B_k$.



        Now fix any enumeration of rationals $E=(r_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$, and pick a sequence $n_i$ ($iinmathbb{N}$) of naturals such that:




        • $n_i<n_{i+1}$, and


        • $r_{n_i}in B_i$.



        Such a sequence must exist since $B_icapmathbb{Q}$ is always infinite.



        Finally, let $A=(a_i)_{iinmathbb{N}}$ be any strictly descending sequence of rationals such that $a_{n_i}={2over i+1}$ for all $i$. The set $${(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i): iinmathbb{N}}$$ covers $[0,infty)$ since each $(r_{n_i}-a_i, r_{n_i}+a_i)$ covers the corresponding $B_i$. So the sequence $A$ is unsatisfiable for the enumeration $E$.







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        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 16 at 17:36

























        answered Jan 16 at 17:30









        Noah SchweberNoah Schweber

        124k10150286




        124k10150286























            3












            $begingroup$

            The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:



            $$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
            where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
            is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.



            Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.



            Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
            $$r_{n} in U_n$$
            holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.



            Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
              $endgroup$
              – Noah Schweber
              Jan 16 at 17:38
















            3












            $begingroup$

            The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:



            $$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
            where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
            is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.



            Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.



            Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
            $$r_{n} in U_n$$
            holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.



            Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
              $endgroup$
              – Noah Schweber
              Jan 16 at 17:38














            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:



            $$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
            where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
            is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.



            Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.



            Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
            $$r_{n} in U_n$$
            holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.



            Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            The answer is no. Consider the following open cover of $Bbb R$:



            $$mathcal U={ (H_{2n} , H_{2n+4}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-H_{2n+4} , -H_{2n}) | n in Bbb N_{ge 1}} cup { (-3, 3) }$$
            where $$H_n = sum_{j=1}^n frac 1j$$
            is the $n$-th harmonic number. Note that for all $varepsilon >0$ only finitely many elements $U in mathcal U$ satisfy $lambda (U) > varepsilon$.



            Let ${ U_{n} }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of it indexed by positive natural numbers. This means that $a_n= lambda (U_n)$ converges to $0$.



            Let ${ r_n }_{n ge 1}$ be an enumeration of rational numbers such that for all $n$
            $$r_{n} in U_n$$
            holds. Recall that $a_n$ is rational, and it converges to $0$.



            Now, for all $x in Bbb R$ there exists $n ge 1$ such that $x in U_n$: thus $|x-r_n| < a_n$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 16 at 17:48

























            answered Jan 16 at 17:37









            CrostulCrostul

            27.9k22352




            27.9k22352












            • $begingroup$
              Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
              $endgroup$
              – Noah Schweber
              Jan 16 at 17:38


















            • $begingroup$
              Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
              $endgroup$
              – Noah Schweber
              Jan 16 at 17:38
















            $begingroup$
            Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
            $endgroup$
            – Noah Schweber
            Jan 16 at 17:38




            $begingroup$
            Note that this just shows that there is an enumeration of rationals with an "unsatisfiable" sequence - it doesn't immediately imply that every enumeration of rationals has such an unsatisfiable sequence.
            $endgroup$
            – Noah Schweber
            Jan 16 at 17:38


















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