Dense subset of two Banach spaces also dense in the intersection












8














My question is:



Let $ V $ be a vector space (over $ mathbb Kin{mathbb{R}, mathbb{C}} $), $ X,Ysubseteq V $ two subspaces equipped with norms $ |cdot|_X, |cdot|_Y $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq Xcap Y$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ Xcap Y $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_X + |cdot|_Y $?



At first sight, it seemed very clear to me that this should be true. But I even fail to answer the following (possibly) easier question:



Let $ X $ be a vector space over $ mathbb K $ equipped with two norms $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_1)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq X$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_2)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ X $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_1 + |cdot|_2 $?



The answer is yes, if $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ are equivalent, so I tried to think about a counterexample using nonequivalent norms on a specific space and I also found a nice paper about nonisomorphic complete norms (https://www.researchgate.net/publication/226200984_Equivalent_complete_norms_and_positivity) but it didn't helped me so far to construct anything useful for my question.



Thanks for your help!










share|cite|improve this question



























    8














    My question is:



    Let $ V $ be a vector space (over $ mathbb Kin{mathbb{R}, mathbb{C}} $), $ X,Ysubseteq V $ two subspaces equipped with norms $ |cdot|_X, |cdot|_Y $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq Xcap Y$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ Xcap Y $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_X + |cdot|_Y $?



    At first sight, it seemed very clear to me that this should be true. But I even fail to answer the following (possibly) easier question:



    Let $ X $ be a vector space over $ mathbb K $ equipped with two norms $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_1)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq X$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_2)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ X $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_1 + |cdot|_2 $?



    The answer is yes, if $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ are equivalent, so I tried to think about a counterexample using nonequivalent norms on a specific space and I also found a nice paper about nonisomorphic complete norms (https://www.researchgate.net/publication/226200984_Equivalent_complete_norms_and_positivity) but it didn't helped me so far to construct anything useful for my question.



    Thanks for your help!










    share|cite|improve this question

























      8












      8








      8


      3





      My question is:



      Let $ V $ be a vector space (over $ mathbb Kin{mathbb{R}, mathbb{C}} $), $ X,Ysubseteq V $ two subspaces equipped with norms $ |cdot|_X, |cdot|_Y $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq Xcap Y$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ Xcap Y $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_X + |cdot|_Y $?



      At first sight, it seemed very clear to me that this should be true. But I even fail to answer the following (possibly) easier question:



      Let $ X $ be a vector space over $ mathbb K $ equipped with two norms $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_1)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq X$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_2)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ X $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_1 + |cdot|_2 $?



      The answer is yes, if $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ are equivalent, so I tried to think about a counterexample using nonequivalent norms on a specific space and I also found a nice paper about nonisomorphic complete norms (https://www.researchgate.net/publication/226200984_Equivalent_complete_norms_and_positivity) but it didn't helped me so far to construct anything useful for my question.



      Thanks for your help!










      share|cite|improve this question













      My question is:



      Let $ V $ be a vector space (over $ mathbb Kin{mathbb{R}, mathbb{C}} $), $ X,Ysubseteq V $ two subspaces equipped with norms $ |cdot|_X, |cdot|_Y $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq Xcap Y$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_X) $ and $(Y,|cdot|_Y)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ Xcap Y $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_X + |cdot|_Y $?



      At first sight, it seemed very clear to me that this should be true. But I even fail to answer the following (possibly) easier question:



      Let $ X $ be a vector space over $ mathbb K $ equipped with two norms $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ such that $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_1)$ are Banach spaces and $ Dsubseteq X$. If $ D $ is dense in $ (X,|cdot|_1) $ and $(X,|cdot|_2)$, is $ D $ also dense in $ X $ equipped with $ |cdot|:=|cdot|_1 + |cdot|_2 $?



      The answer is yes, if $ |cdot|_1, |cdot|_2 $ are equivalent, so I tried to think about a counterexample using nonequivalent norms on a specific space and I also found a nice paper about nonisomorphic complete norms (https://www.researchgate.net/publication/226200984_Equivalent_complete_norms_and_positivity) but it didn't helped me so far to construct anything useful for my question.



      Thanks for your help!







      functional-analysis banach-spaces






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 24 at 11:55









      Nemesis

      432




      432






















          1 Answer
          1






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          3














          I have a negative answer for your "easier" question based on the construction of https://mathoverflow.net/a/184471.



          Let $X_1 := (X, |cdot|_1)$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space and let $varphi$ be an unbounded linear functional on $X_1$. We fix $y in X$ with $varphi(y) = 1$ and define
          $$ S x := x - 2 , varphi(x) , y.$$
          It is easily checked that $S^2 x := S S x = x$.
          The norm
          $$ |x |_2 := | S x|_1$$
          gives rise to the normed space $X_2 := (X, |cdot|_2)$. Since $S :X_2 to X_1$ is an isometric isomorphism (by definition), $X_2$ is complete.



          From $varphi(x) = -varphi(Sx)$ one can check that $varphi$ is also unbounded on $X_2$. Indeed, we find $x_n in X$ with $varphi(x_n) ge n$ and $|x_n|_1=1$. Hence, $varphi( S x_n) ge n$ and $|S x_n|_2 = |x_n|_1 = 1$.



          Thus, the kernel of $varphi$ is dense in $X_1$ and $X_2$.



          However, we can check that $varphi$ is bounded w.r.t. $|cdot|=|cdot|_1+|cdot|_2$:
          $$
          2 , |y|_1 , |varphi(x)|
          =
          | 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          le
          |x|_1 + | x - 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          =
          |x|_1 + | S x|_1
          =
          |x|.$$

          Hence, the kernel of $varphi$ is closed and therefore not dense w.r.t. the norm $|cdot|$ in $X$.



          I would imagine that your original question would be also interesting if we add the following (reasonable) assumption:
          if ${z_n} subset X cap Y$ satisfies $z_n to x$ in $X$ and $z_n to y$ in $Y$
          then $x = y$.
          Note that this is not satisfied in my counterexample.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
            – Severin Schraven
            Dec 1 at 10:17










          • Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
            – Nemesis
            Dec 1 at 12:07












          • @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
            – gerw
            Dec 1 at 14:01











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3














          I have a negative answer for your "easier" question based on the construction of https://mathoverflow.net/a/184471.



          Let $X_1 := (X, |cdot|_1)$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space and let $varphi$ be an unbounded linear functional on $X_1$. We fix $y in X$ with $varphi(y) = 1$ and define
          $$ S x := x - 2 , varphi(x) , y.$$
          It is easily checked that $S^2 x := S S x = x$.
          The norm
          $$ |x |_2 := | S x|_1$$
          gives rise to the normed space $X_2 := (X, |cdot|_2)$. Since $S :X_2 to X_1$ is an isometric isomorphism (by definition), $X_2$ is complete.



          From $varphi(x) = -varphi(Sx)$ one can check that $varphi$ is also unbounded on $X_2$. Indeed, we find $x_n in X$ with $varphi(x_n) ge n$ and $|x_n|_1=1$. Hence, $varphi( S x_n) ge n$ and $|S x_n|_2 = |x_n|_1 = 1$.



          Thus, the kernel of $varphi$ is dense in $X_1$ and $X_2$.



          However, we can check that $varphi$ is bounded w.r.t. $|cdot|=|cdot|_1+|cdot|_2$:
          $$
          2 , |y|_1 , |varphi(x)|
          =
          | 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          le
          |x|_1 + | x - 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          =
          |x|_1 + | S x|_1
          =
          |x|.$$

          Hence, the kernel of $varphi$ is closed and therefore not dense w.r.t. the norm $|cdot|$ in $X$.



          I would imagine that your original question would be also interesting if we add the following (reasonable) assumption:
          if ${z_n} subset X cap Y$ satisfies $z_n to x$ in $X$ and $z_n to y$ in $Y$
          then $x = y$.
          Note that this is not satisfied in my counterexample.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
            – Severin Schraven
            Dec 1 at 10:17










          • Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
            – Nemesis
            Dec 1 at 12:07












          • @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
            – gerw
            Dec 1 at 14:01
















          3














          I have a negative answer for your "easier" question based on the construction of https://mathoverflow.net/a/184471.



          Let $X_1 := (X, |cdot|_1)$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space and let $varphi$ be an unbounded linear functional on $X_1$. We fix $y in X$ with $varphi(y) = 1$ and define
          $$ S x := x - 2 , varphi(x) , y.$$
          It is easily checked that $S^2 x := S S x = x$.
          The norm
          $$ |x |_2 := | S x|_1$$
          gives rise to the normed space $X_2 := (X, |cdot|_2)$. Since $S :X_2 to X_1$ is an isometric isomorphism (by definition), $X_2$ is complete.



          From $varphi(x) = -varphi(Sx)$ one can check that $varphi$ is also unbounded on $X_2$. Indeed, we find $x_n in X$ with $varphi(x_n) ge n$ and $|x_n|_1=1$. Hence, $varphi( S x_n) ge n$ and $|S x_n|_2 = |x_n|_1 = 1$.



          Thus, the kernel of $varphi$ is dense in $X_1$ and $X_2$.



          However, we can check that $varphi$ is bounded w.r.t. $|cdot|=|cdot|_1+|cdot|_2$:
          $$
          2 , |y|_1 , |varphi(x)|
          =
          | 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          le
          |x|_1 + | x - 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          =
          |x|_1 + | S x|_1
          =
          |x|.$$

          Hence, the kernel of $varphi$ is closed and therefore not dense w.r.t. the norm $|cdot|$ in $X$.



          I would imagine that your original question would be also interesting if we add the following (reasonable) assumption:
          if ${z_n} subset X cap Y$ satisfies $z_n to x$ in $X$ and $z_n to y$ in $Y$
          then $x = y$.
          Note that this is not satisfied in my counterexample.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
            – Severin Schraven
            Dec 1 at 10:17










          • Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
            – Nemesis
            Dec 1 at 12:07












          • @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
            – gerw
            Dec 1 at 14:01














          3












          3








          3






          I have a negative answer for your "easier" question based on the construction of https://mathoverflow.net/a/184471.



          Let $X_1 := (X, |cdot|_1)$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space and let $varphi$ be an unbounded linear functional on $X_1$. We fix $y in X$ with $varphi(y) = 1$ and define
          $$ S x := x - 2 , varphi(x) , y.$$
          It is easily checked that $S^2 x := S S x = x$.
          The norm
          $$ |x |_2 := | S x|_1$$
          gives rise to the normed space $X_2 := (X, |cdot|_2)$. Since $S :X_2 to X_1$ is an isometric isomorphism (by definition), $X_2$ is complete.



          From $varphi(x) = -varphi(Sx)$ one can check that $varphi$ is also unbounded on $X_2$. Indeed, we find $x_n in X$ with $varphi(x_n) ge n$ and $|x_n|_1=1$. Hence, $varphi( S x_n) ge n$ and $|S x_n|_2 = |x_n|_1 = 1$.



          Thus, the kernel of $varphi$ is dense in $X_1$ and $X_2$.



          However, we can check that $varphi$ is bounded w.r.t. $|cdot|=|cdot|_1+|cdot|_2$:
          $$
          2 , |y|_1 , |varphi(x)|
          =
          | 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          le
          |x|_1 + | x - 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          =
          |x|_1 + | S x|_1
          =
          |x|.$$

          Hence, the kernel of $varphi$ is closed and therefore not dense w.r.t. the norm $|cdot|$ in $X$.



          I would imagine that your original question would be also interesting if we add the following (reasonable) assumption:
          if ${z_n} subset X cap Y$ satisfies $z_n to x$ in $X$ and $z_n to y$ in $Y$
          then $x = y$.
          Note that this is not satisfied in my counterexample.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          I have a negative answer for your "easier" question based on the construction of https://mathoverflow.net/a/184471.



          Let $X_1 := (X, |cdot|_1)$ be an infinite dimensional Banach space and let $varphi$ be an unbounded linear functional on $X_1$. We fix $y in X$ with $varphi(y) = 1$ and define
          $$ S x := x - 2 , varphi(x) , y.$$
          It is easily checked that $S^2 x := S S x = x$.
          The norm
          $$ |x |_2 := | S x|_1$$
          gives rise to the normed space $X_2 := (X, |cdot|_2)$. Since $S :X_2 to X_1$ is an isometric isomorphism (by definition), $X_2$ is complete.



          From $varphi(x) = -varphi(Sx)$ one can check that $varphi$ is also unbounded on $X_2$. Indeed, we find $x_n in X$ with $varphi(x_n) ge n$ and $|x_n|_1=1$. Hence, $varphi( S x_n) ge n$ and $|S x_n|_2 = |x_n|_1 = 1$.



          Thus, the kernel of $varphi$ is dense in $X_1$ and $X_2$.



          However, we can check that $varphi$ is bounded w.r.t. $|cdot|=|cdot|_1+|cdot|_2$:
          $$
          2 , |y|_1 , |varphi(x)|
          =
          | 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          le
          |x|_1 + | x - 2 , varphi(x) , y |_1
          =
          |x|_1 + | S x|_1
          =
          |x|.$$

          Hence, the kernel of $varphi$ is closed and therefore not dense w.r.t. the norm $|cdot|$ in $X$.



          I would imagine that your original question would be also interesting if we add the following (reasonable) assumption:
          if ${z_n} subset X cap Y$ satisfies $z_n to x$ in $X$ and $z_n to y$ in $Y$
          then $x = y$.
          Note that this is not satisfied in my counterexample.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 1 at 14:01

























          answered Nov 30 at 9:45









          gerw

          19k11133




          19k11133












          • Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
            – Severin Schraven
            Dec 1 at 10:17










          • Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
            – Nemesis
            Dec 1 at 12:07












          • @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
            – gerw
            Dec 1 at 14:01


















          • Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
            – Severin Schraven
            Dec 1 at 10:17










          • Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
            – Nemesis
            Dec 1 at 12:07












          • @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
            – gerw
            Dec 1 at 14:01
















          Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
          – Severin Schraven
          Dec 1 at 10:17




          Nice answer. I think you want $varphi(x)=-varphi(Sx)$ (which of course doesn't change anything).
          – Severin Schraven
          Dec 1 at 10:17












          Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
          – Nemesis
          Dec 1 at 12:07






          Thank you gerw, very enlightening.
          – Nemesis
          Dec 1 at 12:07














          @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
          – gerw
          Dec 1 at 14:01




          @SeverinSchraven: Yes, of course! Thank you.
          – gerw
          Dec 1 at 14:01


















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