Doob Dynkin lemma, uniqueness of the Borel function











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For $X$ and $Y$ defined on some probability space $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbf{P})$, $Y$ is $sigma(X)$-measurable iff there is a Borel function $f$ such that $Y=f(X)$.



My question is, given $X$ and $Y$ and knowing that $Y$ being $sigma(X)$-measurable, is the Borel function $f$ unique? Can there be more than one such Borel functions fulfill the condition?










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    down vote

    favorite












    For $X$ and $Y$ defined on some probability space $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbf{P})$, $Y$ is $sigma(X)$-measurable iff there is a Borel function $f$ such that $Y=f(X)$.



    My question is, given $X$ and $Y$ and knowing that $Y$ being $sigma(X)$-measurable, is the Borel function $f$ unique? Can there be more than one such Borel functions fulfill the condition?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      For $X$ and $Y$ defined on some probability space $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbf{P})$, $Y$ is $sigma(X)$-measurable iff there is a Borel function $f$ such that $Y=f(X)$.



      My question is, given $X$ and $Y$ and knowing that $Y$ being $sigma(X)$-measurable, is the Borel function $f$ unique? Can there be more than one such Borel functions fulfill the condition?










      share|cite|improve this question















      For $X$ and $Y$ defined on some probability space $(Omega,mathcal{F},mathbf{P})$, $Y$ is $sigma(X)$-measurable iff there is a Borel function $f$ such that $Y=f(X)$.



      My question is, given $X$ and $Y$ and knowing that $Y$ being $sigma(X)$-measurable, is the Borel function $f$ unique? Can there be more than one such Borel functions fulfill the condition?







      probability-theory measure-theory






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      edited Nov 19 at 10:23

























      asked Nov 19 at 1:10









      lychtalent

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      699






















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          It helps to rephrase this question in terms of pure measure theory: let measurable $X,YinOmegatoPsi$ be such that $Y=fcirc X$ for some Borel $f$. Is $f$ unique?



          This immediately makes it clear that Borelness is not relevant to this problem. The answer is the well-known theory of lifts in the category of sets.



          If $X$ is not surjective, the answer is clearly no; we can make arbitrary changes to $f$ on the complement of $text{im}{(X)}$.



          If $X$ is surjective, then $f$ is unique by linearity. For, suppose $Y=fcirc X=gcirc X$; then, by subtracting, we have $(f-g)circ X=0$. As $X$ is surjective, $f-g=0$.






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          • Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
            – lychtalent
            Nov 19 at 10:23











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          It helps to rephrase this question in terms of pure measure theory: let measurable $X,YinOmegatoPsi$ be such that $Y=fcirc X$ for some Borel $f$. Is $f$ unique?



          This immediately makes it clear that Borelness is not relevant to this problem. The answer is the well-known theory of lifts in the category of sets.



          If $X$ is not surjective, the answer is clearly no; we can make arbitrary changes to $f$ on the complement of $text{im}{(X)}$.



          If $X$ is surjective, then $f$ is unique by linearity. For, suppose $Y=fcirc X=gcirc X$; then, by subtracting, we have $(f-g)circ X=0$. As $X$ is surjective, $f-g=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
            – lychtalent
            Nov 19 at 10:23















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          It helps to rephrase this question in terms of pure measure theory: let measurable $X,YinOmegatoPsi$ be such that $Y=fcirc X$ for some Borel $f$. Is $f$ unique?



          This immediately makes it clear that Borelness is not relevant to this problem. The answer is the well-known theory of lifts in the category of sets.



          If $X$ is not surjective, the answer is clearly no; we can make arbitrary changes to $f$ on the complement of $text{im}{(X)}$.



          If $X$ is surjective, then $f$ is unique by linearity. For, suppose $Y=fcirc X=gcirc X$; then, by subtracting, we have $(f-g)circ X=0$. As $X$ is surjective, $f-g=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
            – lychtalent
            Nov 19 at 10:23













          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          It helps to rephrase this question in terms of pure measure theory: let measurable $X,YinOmegatoPsi$ be such that $Y=fcirc X$ for some Borel $f$. Is $f$ unique?



          This immediately makes it clear that Borelness is not relevant to this problem. The answer is the well-known theory of lifts in the category of sets.



          If $X$ is not surjective, the answer is clearly no; we can make arbitrary changes to $f$ on the complement of $text{im}{(X)}$.



          If $X$ is surjective, then $f$ is unique by linearity. For, suppose $Y=fcirc X=gcirc X$; then, by subtracting, we have $(f-g)circ X=0$. As $X$ is surjective, $f-g=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          It helps to rephrase this question in terms of pure measure theory: let measurable $X,YinOmegatoPsi$ be such that $Y=fcirc X$ for some Borel $f$. Is $f$ unique?



          This immediately makes it clear that Borelness is not relevant to this problem. The answer is the well-known theory of lifts in the category of sets.



          If $X$ is not surjective, the answer is clearly no; we can make arbitrary changes to $f$ on the complement of $text{im}{(X)}$.



          If $X$ is surjective, then $f$ is unique by linearity. For, suppose $Y=fcirc X=gcirc X$; then, by subtracting, we have $(f-g)circ X=0$. As $X$ is surjective, $f-g=0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 19 at 1:22









          Jacob Manaker

          1,099414




          1,099414












          • Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
            – lychtalent
            Nov 19 at 10:23


















          • Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
            – lychtalent
            Nov 19 at 10:23
















          Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
          – lychtalent
          Nov 19 at 10:23




          Thanks! This is an excellent answer!
          – lychtalent
          Nov 19 at 10:23


















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