Behavior of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} z^{n!}$ on the unit circle [duplicate]











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  • Series with radius of convergence 1 that diverges on roots of unity, converges elsewhere on the circle.

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I'm trying to understand the behavior of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} z^{n!}$ on the unit circle.



Since for each $m$th root of unity $zeta_m$
$$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} zeta_m^{n!} = C + sum_{n=m}^infty frac{1}{n} = infty$$
holds for some $C in mathbb{C}$, the series diverges for all $e^{varphi pi i}$ with $varphi in mathbb{Q}$.



But what happens for $varphi in mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}$?



Does the series diverge everywhere, or are there points where it is convergent?










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marked as duplicate by kingW3, Paul Frost, Lord Shark the Unknown, Arnaud D., amWhy calculus
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Nov 16 at 20:16


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  • I have no idea. It's a cute problem, though.
    – davidlowryduda
    Nov 16 at 12:16










  • For the purposes of googling, such a series is said to lacunary. In that context one usually talks about gap theorems of various strengths (eg the Fabry gap theorem) and one of those may be illuminating.
    – Semiclassical
    Nov 16 at 14:59















up vote
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This question already has an answer here:




  • Series with radius of convergence 1 that diverges on roots of unity, converges elsewhere on the circle.

    2 answers




I'm trying to understand the behavior of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} z^{n!}$ on the unit circle.



Since for each $m$th root of unity $zeta_m$
$$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} zeta_m^{n!} = C + sum_{n=m}^infty frac{1}{n} = infty$$
holds for some $C in mathbb{C}$, the series diverges for all $e^{varphi pi i}$ with $varphi in mathbb{Q}$.



But what happens for $varphi in mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}$?



Does the series diverge everywhere, or are there points where it is convergent?










share|cite|improve this question















marked as duplicate by kingW3, Paul Frost, Lord Shark the Unknown, Arnaud D., amWhy calculus
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Nov 16 at 20:16


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • I have no idea. It's a cute problem, though.
    – davidlowryduda
    Nov 16 at 12:16










  • For the purposes of googling, such a series is said to lacunary. In that context one usually talks about gap theorems of various strengths (eg the Fabry gap theorem) and one of those may be illuminating.
    – Semiclassical
    Nov 16 at 14:59













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up vote
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This question already has an answer here:




  • Series with radius of convergence 1 that diverges on roots of unity, converges elsewhere on the circle.

    2 answers




I'm trying to understand the behavior of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} z^{n!}$ on the unit circle.



Since for each $m$th root of unity $zeta_m$
$$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} zeta_m^{n!} = C + sum_{n=m}^infty frac{1}{n} = infty$$
holds for some $C in mathbb{C}$, the series diverges for all $e^{varphi pi i}$ with $varphi in mathbb{Q}$.



But what happens for $varphi in mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}$?



Does the series diverge everywhere, or are there points where it is convergent?










share|cite|improve this question
















This question already has an answer here:




  • Series with radius of convergence 1 that diverges on roots of unity, converges elsewhere on the circle.

    2 answers




I'm trying to understand the behavior of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} z^{n!}$ on the unit circle.



Since for each $m$th root of unity $zeta_m$
$$sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n} zeta_m^{n!} = C + sum_{n=m}^infty frac{1}{n} = infty$$
holds for some $C in mathbb{C}$, the series diverges for all $e^{varphi pi i}$ with $varphi in mathbb{Q}$.



But what happens for $varphi in mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}$?



Does the series diverge everywhere, or are there points where it is convergent?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Series with radius of convergence 1 that diverges on roots of unity, converges elsewhere on the circle.

    2 answers








calculus complex-analysis






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edited Nov 16 at 12:32









amWhy

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asked Nov 16 at 12:14









Johannes S.

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marked as duplicate by kingW3, Paul Frost, Lord Shark the Unknown, Arnaud D., amWhy calculus
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Nov 16 at 20:16


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marked as duplicate by kingW3, Paul Frost, Lord Shark the Unknown, Arnaud D., amWhy calculus
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Nov 16 at 20:16


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • I have no idea. It's a cute problem, though.
    – davidlowryduda
    Nov 16 at 12:16










  • For the purposes of googling, such a series is said to lacunary. In that context one usually talks about gap theorems of various strengths (eg the Fabry gap theorem) and one of those may be illuminating.
    – Semiclassical
    Nov 16 at 14:59


















  • I have no idea. It's a cute problem, though.
    – davidlowryduda
    Nov 16 at 12:16










  • For the purposes of googling, such a series is said to lacunary. In that context one usually talks about gap theorems of various strengths (eg the Fabry gap theorem) and one of those may be illuminating.
    – Semiclassical
    Nov 16 at 14:59
















I have no idea. It's a cute problem, though.
– davidlowryduda
Nov 16 at 12:16




I have no idea. It's a cute problem, though.
– davidlowryduda
Nov 16 at 12:16












For the purposes of googling, such a series is said to lacunary. In that context one usually talks about gap theorems of various strengths (eg the Fabry gap theorem) and one of those may be illuminating.
– Semiclassical
Nov 16 at 14:59




For the purposes of googling, such a series is said to lacunary. In that context one usually talks about gap theorems of various strengths (eg the Fabry gap theorem) and one of those may be illuminating.
– Semiclassical
Nov 16 at 14:59










1 Answer
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The sum converges for $z = e^{2pi ivarphi}$ for $varphi = frac{1}{2}frac{1}{1!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{3!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{5!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{7!}+...$. The reason is that for $n$ odd, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $frac{1}{2}$, while for $n$ even, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $0$.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    up vote
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    accepted










    The sum converges for $z = e^{2pi ivarphi}$ for $varphi = frac{1}{2}frac{1}{1!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{3!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{5!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{7!}+...$. The reason is that for $n$ odd, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $frac{1}{2}$, while for $n$ even, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $0$.






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      up vote
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      The sum converges for $z = e^{2pi ivarphi}$ for $varphi = frac{1}{2}frac{1}{1!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{3!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{5!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{7!}+...$. The reason is that for $n$ odd, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $frac{1}{2}$, while for $n$ even, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $0$.






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        up vote
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        up vote
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        accepted






        The sum converges for $z = e^{2pi ivarphi}$ for $varphi = frac{1}{2}frac{1}{1!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{3!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{5!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{7!}+...$. The reason is that for $n$ odd, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $frac{1}{2}$, while for $n$ even, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $0$.






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        The sum converges for $z = e^{2pi ivarphi}$ for $varphi = frac{1}{2}frac{1}{1!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{3!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{5!}+frac{1}{2}frac{1}{7!}+...$. The reason is that for $n$ odd, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $frac{1}{2}$, while for $n$ even, $n!varphi pmod{1}$ is basically $0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 18 at 15:00

























        answered Nov 16 at 12:32









        mathworker21

        8,0671827




        8,0671827















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