An integral inequality with cosine












0














I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44


















0














I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44
















0












0








0







I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!










share|cite|improve this question















I tried to prove that $$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dxleq frac{2}{pi}logleft(frac{b}{a}right)+O(1).$$ Of course $O(1)$ as a function of $b$, i.e. a bounded function of $b$. $a$ is considered constant with respect to $b$.
I found this inequality in a paper. There, it is written that we can be prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$ and by using the basic equality $$frac{1}{2pi}int_0^{2pi}|cos(x)|dx=frac{2}{pi}.$$ I tried to follow the aforementioned hint, but I got nowhere. I suppose that the term $log(b/a)$ pops out from the integral $int_{a}^{b}x^{-1}dx$, but I could not make this integral appear and obtain the desired inequality at the same time.



Do you have any hint? I suspect that it must be easy, but I am probably missing something now. I hope it is not a duplicate. Thanks in advance for your help!







inequality integral-inequality






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 28 '18 at 2:40

























asked Nov 28 '18 at 2:03









Sachpazis Stelios

765315




765315












  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44




















  • I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:09










  • @user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:11










  • What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:34












  • @user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:39










  • The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
    – user23793
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:44


















I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:09




I suspect you do a Taylor expansion for this problem.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:09












@user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:11




@user23793 And what do you do after that actually?
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:11












What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:34






What are the conditions on $a$ and $b$? When you say "prove it by splitting the integral in integrals of length $2pi$", the length of $[a,b]$ may be less than $2pi$, in which case you may have to consider some cases. Also, could you clarify what you mean in the sentence I quoted?
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:34














@user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:39




@user23793 Usually the length of the interval is large, a lot greater than $2pi.$ There are no other conditions on $a$ and $b$. We just have to know that both sides are treated as functions of $b$, while $a$ is considered to be constant in terms of $a$. I also edited the question about this clarification.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 28 '18 at 2:39












The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:44






The reason I ask is that there might be a singularity at $0$ if $0in [a,b]$. It seems that there is some missing information.
– user23793
Nov 28 '18 at 2:44












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1














We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3016604%2fan-integral-inequality-with-cosine%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39
















1














We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39














1












1








1






We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$






share|cite|improve this answer












We assume that $ageq 4pi$ and $b>a$.



One way to prove the inequality is to partition the range $[a,b]$ into the sets $I_n = [ 2 pi n , 2pi (n+1)] $. In particular, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx = sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n cap [a,b]}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx$$

with $n_0 = lfloor a/2pi rfloor$ and $n_1 = lceil b/2pi rceil$.



Now, we have that
$$int_{a}^{b}frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{x}dx leq sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1} int_{I_n}
frac{|cos (x)|}{2pi n}dx = frac{2}{pi} sum_{n=n_0}^{n_1}frac{1}{2pi n} leq frac{2}{pi} int_{lfloor a/2pi rfloor -1}^{lceil b/2pi rceil} frac{dn}{2pi n} \= frac{2}{pi} logleft(frac{b}aright) + O(1),.$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 28 '18 at 5:11









Fabian

19.4k3674




19.4k3674












  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39


















  • Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:32










  • Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
    – Sachpazis Stelios
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:39
















Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:32




Ahh, I knew that it had to be something simple. That time I was stuck. Anyway, thanks for the answer!
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:32












Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:39




Just a comment. You don't have the $2pi$ in the denominators after using the integral equality. However, the rest remains valid, because the $2pi$'s will cancel in the logarithm at the end.
– Sachpazis Stelios
Nov 29 '18 at 1:39


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3016604%2fan-integral-inequality-with-cosine%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

How do I know what Microsoft account the skydrive app is syncing to?

Grease: Live!

When does type information flow backwards in C++?