The Poincare Plane distance











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The Poincare plane, $mathbb{H}$, is:



$$mathbb{H} = {(x,y) in mathbb{R^2} | y>0}$$
$$_{a}L = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | x=a}$$
$$_{c}L_r = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | (x-c)^2+y^2=r^2}.$$



The Poincare distance is given by the following if $x_1=x_2$:



$$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|ln(y_2/y_1)|$$





My question is, why isn't the distance just $$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|y_2-y_1|$$ instead since $x_1=x_2$? Why is the natural logarithm introduced for the distance?










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  • The formula comes from the general definition of the line element, $ds^2 = (dx^2 + dy^2)/y^2$. The distance function isn't arbitrary; it's chosen to make the resulting space negatively curved, and it has a very nice isometry group. If you just take the Euclidean distance on $mathbb{H}$, the resulting space is flat, and it's not even complete: consider the case $y_i to 0$.
    – anomaly
    Nov 13 at 5:08












  • @anomaly hmm I have not yet covered isometry nor calculus in the book. Is there a different approach in understanding why without introducing isometry or calculus?
    – Robben
    Nov 13 at 5:59















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












The Poincare plane, $mathbb{H}$, is:



$$mathbb{H} = {(x,y) in mathbb{R^2} | y>0}$$
$$_{a}L = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | x=a}$$
$$_{c}L_r = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | (x-c)^2+y^2=r^2}.$$



The Poincare distance is given by the following if $x_1=x_2$:



$$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|ln(y_2/y_1)|$$





My question is, why isn't the distance just $$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|y_2-y_1|$$ instead since $x_1=x_2$? Why is the natural logarithm introduced for the distance?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • The formula comes from the general definition of the line element, $ds^2 = (dx^2 + dy^2)/y^2$. The distance function isn't arbitrary; it's chosen to make the resulting space negatively curved, and it has a very nice isometry group. If you just take the Euclidean distance on $mathbb{H}$, the resulting space is flat, and it's not even complete: consider the case $y_i to 0$.
    – anomaly
    Nov 13 at 5:08












  • @anomaly hmm I have not yet covered isometry nor calculus in the book. Is there a different approach in understanding why without introducing isometry or calculus?
    – Robben
    Nov 13 at 5:59













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











The Poincare plane, $mathbb{H}$, is:



$$mathbb{H} = {(x,y) in mathbb{R^2} | y>0}$$
$$_{a}L = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | x=a}$$
$$_{c}L_r = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | (x-c)^2+y^2=r^2}.$$



The Poincare distance is given by the following if $x_1=x_2$:



$$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|ln(y_2/y_1)|$$





My question is, why isn't the distance just $$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|y_2-y_1|$$ instead since $x_1=x_2$? Why is the natural logarithm introduced for the distance?










share|cite|improve this question















The Poincare plane, $mathbb{H}$, is:



$$mathbb{H} = {(x,y) in mathbb{R^2} | y>0}$$
$$_{a}L = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | x=a}$$
$$_{c}L_r = {(x,y) in mathbb{H} | (x-c)^2+y^2=r^2}.$$



The Poincare distance is given by the following if $x_1=x_2$:



$$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|ln(y_2/y_1)|$$





My question is, why isn't the distance just $$d_mathbb{H}(P,Q)=|y_2-y_1|$$ instead since $x_1=x_2$? Why is the natural logarithm introduced for the distance?







geometry






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 13 at 17:05

























asked Nov 13 at 4:57









Robben

1295




1295












  • The formula comes from the general definition of the line element, $ds^2 = (dx^2 + dy^2)/y^2$. The distance function isn't arbitrary; it's chosen to make the resulting space negatively curved, and it has a very nice isometry group. If you just take the Euclidean distance on $mathbb{H}$, the resulting space is flat, and it's not even complete: consider the case $y_i to 0$.
    – anomaly
    Nov 13 at 5:08












  • @anomaly hmm I have not yet covered isometry nor calculus in the book. Is there a different approach in understanding why without introducing isometry or calculus?
    – Robben
    Nov 13 at 5:59


















  • The formula comes from the general definition of the line element, $ds^2 = (dx^2 + dy^2)/y^2$. The distance function isn't arbitrary; it's chosen to make the resulting space negatively curved, and it has a very nice isometry group. If you just take the Euclidean distance on $mathbb{H}$, the resulting space is flat, and it's not even complete: consider the case $y_i to 0$.
    – anomaly
    Nov 13 at 5:08












  • @anomaly hmm I have not yet covered isometry nor calculus in the book. Is there a different approach in understanding why without introducing isometry or calculus?
    – Robben
    Nov 13 at 5:59
















The formula comes from the general definition of the line element, $ds^2 = (dx^2 + dy^2)/y^2$. The distance function isn't arbitrary; it's chosen to make the resulting space negatively curved, and it has a very nice isometry group. If you just take the Euclidean distance on $mathbb{H}$, the resulting space is flat, and it's not even complete: consider the case $y_i to 0$.
– anomaly
Nov 13 at 5:08






The formula comes from the general definition of the line element, $ds^2 = (dx^2 + dy^2)/y^2$. The distance function isn't arbitrary; it's chosen to make the resulting space negatively curved, and it has a very nice isometry group. If you just take the Euclidean distance on $mathbb{H}$, the resulting space is flat, and it's not even complete: consider the case $y_i to 0$.
– anomaly
Nov 13 at 5:08














@anomaly hmm I have not yet covered isometry nor calculus in the book. Is there a different approach in understanding why without introducing isometry or calculus?
– Robben
Nov 13 at 5:59




@anomaly hmm I have not yet covered isometry nor calculus in the book. Is there a different approach in understanding why without introducing isometry or calculus?
– Robben
Nov 13 at 5:59















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