Why are these quavers beamed this way?
I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?
notation beaming
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
add a comment |
I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?
notation beaming
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
1
I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.
– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16
3
I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...
– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24
add a comment |
I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?
notation beaming
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?
notation beaming
notation beaming
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
asked Feb 11 at 10:30
Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan
854416
854416
1
I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.
– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16
3
I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...
– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24
add a comment |
1
I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.
– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16
3
I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...
– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24
1
1
I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.
– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16
I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.
– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16
3
3
I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...
– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24
I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...
– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.
The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
1
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
add a comment |
Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
1
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.
The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
1
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
add a comment |
Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.
The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
1
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
add a comment |
Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.
The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.
The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
answered Feb 11 at 13:48
NReilinghNReilingh
31.2k287153
31.2k287153
1
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
add a comment |
1
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
1
1
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.
– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21
add a comment |
Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
1
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
add a comment |
Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
1
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
add a comment |
Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
answered Feb 11 at 10:43
TimTim
102k10107259
102k10107259
1
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
add a comment |
1
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
1
1
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.
– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41
add a comment |
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1
I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.
– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16
3
I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...
– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24